Answer:
a) P(X=41)= 0.0086 = 0.86%
b) P(36≤X≤38)== 0.1215 = 12.15%
c) would be unusual that fewer that 20 murders were cleared because P(X≤20) = 0.000081 =0.0081%
Step-by-step explanation:
if the random variable X= number of cleared murders , then X follows a binomial distribution:
P(X=x)= n!/[(n-x)!*x!]*p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
where P(X=x)= probability of x cleared murders, n= number of murders selected=50 , p= probability for a murder to be cleared (67%)
therefore
a) P(X=41)=50!/[(50-41)!*41!]*0.67^41*0.33^(50-41)= 0.0086
b) P(36≤X≤38)= P(X≤38) - P(X≤36) = 0.9371- 0.8156 = 0.1215
c) P(X≤20) = 0.000081
therefore would be unusual that fewer that 20 murders were cleared
Answer:
44
Step-by-step explanation:
k=1: 2*1-4 = -2
k=2: 2*2²-4 = 4
k=3: 2*3²-4 = 14
k=4: 2*4²-4 = 28
-2 + 4 + 14 + 28 = 44
Answer: An easy way to determine whether a function is a one-to-one function is to use the horizontal line test on the graph of the function. To do this, draw horizontal lines through the graph. If any horizontal line intersects the graph more than once, then the graph does not represent a one-to-one function.
i dont know the exact answer but its a lil sum
Step-by-step explanation:
We know that for any two inverses f(x) = g(y), meaning that if we take f(x) for any x in the domain of f(x), then g(y), where y is the outcome of f(x), should output x. So that is a simple test to see if two functions are inverses.
Answer:
$96.55
Step-by-step explanation:
The computation of the money he would require is shown below:
Since lee wants to buy both pairs of shoes and the two pairs of socks
So the amount of money he needed is
= $37.07 + $42.48 + 2 × $8.50
= $37.07 + $42.48 + $17
= $96.55
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
