Answer:
Asset B generate most benefit.
Step-by-step explanation:
Correlation shows the strength of relation between two variables.
Greater the correlation coefficient greater the strength between two variables.
Since here It is given that Correlation Coefficient between risk reduction and Asset B is higher (i.e. 60%) than the Correlation Coefficient between risk reduction and Asset A (i.e. 40%).
Thus, Asset B generate most benefit.
In scientific notation, it would be 2x10^3.
An easy trick to help remember when it is a multiple of 10 is that you do the numbers that aren't zero (2) times 10 and the exponent is how ever many zeros there are after the other numbers (3).
Answer:
D
Step-by-step explanation:
if x=5 then,
y=-6×1+11
=-6+11
=5
Hi there!
Mrs. Miller earns a commission of 6% of 179,000
The word "of" is the same thing as a multiplication sign.
6% of 179,000 = 6% × 179,000
6% = 0.06
6% × 179,000 = 0.06 × 179,000
0.06 × 179,000 = 10,740
Your answer is: Mrs. Miller earns $10,740 of commission.
There you go! I really hope this helped, if there's anything just let me know! :)
Answer:
Mean and IQR
Step-by-step explanation:
The measure of centre gives the central or the measure which gives the best mid term of a distribution. Based in the details of the box plot, the median is the value which divides the box in the box plot.
For company A:
Range = 25 to 80 with a median value at 30 ; this means the median does not give a good centre measure of the distribution ad it is very close to the minimum value. This goes for the Company B plot too; with values ranging from (35 to 90) and the median designated at 40.
Hence, the mean will be the best measure of centre rather Than the median in this case.
For the variability, the interquartile range would best suit the distribution. With the lower quartile and upper quartile both having reasonable width to the minimum and maximum value of the distribution.
