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FromTheMoon [43]
3 years ago
9

Please help me and if I can I’ll help you but please I don’t get it!!

Mathematics
1 answer:
kobusy [5.1K]3 years ago
4 0

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this problem, let's set up our equation to solve for x (time to travel 13 miles).

\frac{65}{1} =\frac{13}{x}

We use this equation to find x. To solve, we divide 13 by 65 to get our answer.

13 ÷ 65 = 0.2

Our answer: 0.2 hours

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HELP QUIZ PLS GET IT RIFHT BRAINLEST
Studentka2010 [4]

Answer:

y= -2.00x + 3.00   A

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Karen and Maria each open a savings account at the same time. They only make deposits into their accounts and do not make withdr
lina2011 [118]

The amount in Maria's account is $79.

The amount in Karen's account is $73.

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

Karen deposits $28 into her account and she deposits $5 each week into her account.

From this given information, the equation can be framed as y = 28+5x ----(1)

where,

  • y is the total amount deposited.
  • x is the number of weeks the particular amount is deposited.

The equation for Maria's account is given as y = 7+8x ------(2)

<u>To find the no.of weeks at which they both have same amount of money :</u>

Equating the equations (1) and (2),

⇒ 28 + 5x = 7 + 8x

⇒ 28-7 = 8x-5x

⇒ 21 = 3x

⇒ x = 21/3

⇒ x = 7 weeks

After 7 weeks, the money in the account of Karen & Maria will be same.

<u>To find the amount of money in each girl's account after 2 weeks :</u>

It is given that, you have to calculate amount of money that each girl has in her account 2 weeks after they have the same amount of money in their accounts.

We already know that, it takes 7 weeks for them to have same amount.

So, 7 weeks + 2 weeks = 9 weeks

You have to calculate the amount in each girl's account after 9 weeks.

<u>Karen's account :</u>

Substitute x=9 in eq(1),

⇒ y = 28+5(9)

⇒ y = 28+45

⇒ y = 73

The amount in Karen's account is $73.

<u>Maria's account :</u>

Substitute x=9 in eq(1),

⇒ y = 7+8(9)

⇒ y = 7+72

⇒ y = 79

The amount in Maria's account is $79.

4 0
3 years ago
In a Match 6 Lotto, winning the jackpot requires that you select six different numbers from 1 to 49, and that the same six numbe
zimovet [89]

Answer:

P=\frac{1}{13,983,816}=7.2\ x\ 10^{-8}

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider the following characteristics of the problem:

The numbers that are selected are different between 1 and 49. This means that the same number is not repeated twice.

The order in which the selected numbers appear does not matter:

This means that (123) = (312)

With this in mind, we know that it is a problem of combinations without repetition. It is not calculated using permutations because in the permutations the order of selection is important, for example: (123) is not equal to (312)

The formula for calculating combinations without repetition is:

nCr=\frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

Where n is the number of "elements" you can choose and choose r from them

In this case:

n=49

r=6

So:

49C6=\frac{49!}{6!(49-6)!}

49C6=13,983,816\ outcomes

There are 13,983,816 possible results

This is the best method to calculate the number of possible outcomes.

<em><u>"Besides your method, is there another method to determine the number of outcomes?"</u></em>

Sure, make a list of the 13,983,816 different sets of 6 numbers.

To win it is necessary to obtain the 6 winning numbers in any order. The number of ways this can occur is calculated by combining 6 in 6

6C6=\frac{6!}{6!(6-6)!}=1

Finally the probability of winning is:

P=\frac{1}{13,983,816}=7.2\ x\ 10^{-8}

Note that the probability of winning is very close to 0. It is practically impossible to win the lottery, you will probably never win anything. Therefore it is better not to invest money in this

6 0
3 years ago
The pie chart to the right shows how adults rate their financial shape. Suppose 4 people are chosen at random from a group of 14
Salsk061 [2.6K]

<u>Question Completion</u>

PIE CHART NUMBERS:

  • Excellent 9%
  • Good 41%
  • Fair 36%
  • Poor 13%
  • Other 1%

Answer:

0.000063

Step-by-step explanation:

Number of Respondents, n=1400

Probability that they would rate their financial shape as​ excellent = 0.09

Number of Those who would rate their financial shape as excellent

=0.09 X 1400

=126

Therefore:

The probability that 4 people chosen at random would rate their financial shape as​ excellent

=\dfrac{^{126}C_4 \times ^{1400-126}C_0}{^{1400}C_4} \\=\dfrac{^{126}C_4 \times ^{1274}C_0}{^{1400}C_4}\\=0.000063 $(correct to 6 decimal places)

6 0
3 years ago
Answer ASAP pls pls
LiRa [457]
D be the correct answer
6 0
3 years ago
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