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bagirrra123 [75]
3 years ago
10

How do i solve this problem to this fraction 2/3-1/6

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alborosie3 years ago
7 0
You can do crisscross multiple.
2x6=12 then 3x1=3 than multiple the denominators 3x6=18 now you have 9/18 which can be simplified 9 goes into 9 one times and 9 goes into 18 two times. Your answer is 1/2. Hope this helps
dimulka [17.4K]3 years ago
4 0
Find the common denominator of 3 and 6. which is 6. now just subtact 2 and 1 which is 1. ur answer is 1/6
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Answer:

x - 3 < -5 is the inequality x < -2 is the solution

Step-by-step explanation:

x - 3 < -5

add 3

x < -2

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Solve x + 2∕5 = 1∕3 for x.
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2.2360679775

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Write a real world problem about dividing $145,775 by $25 and solve.
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A library subscribes to two different weekly news magazines, each of which is supposed to arrive in Wednesday's mail. In actuali
Dominik [7]

Answer:

y                 0             1              2          3

P(Y=y)   0.0676   0.3549   0.3875   0.19

Step-by-step explanation:

P(Wed) = 0.26

P(Thurs) = 0.39

P(Fri) = 0.25

P(Sat) = 0.10

Y = No. of days beyond Wednesday it takes for both magazines to arrive i.e. 0,1,2,3

Y=0 means the magazines will arrive on Wednesday

Y=1 means the magazines will arrive till Thursday

Y=2 means the magazines will arrive till Friday

Y=3 means the magazines will arrive till Saturday

The possible combinations for Y are

Y(W,W) Y(W,T) Y(W,F) Y(W,S)

Y(T,W) Y(T,T) Y(T,F) Y(T,S)

Y(F,W) Y(F,T) Y(F,F) Y(F,S)

Y(S,W) Y(S,T) Y(S,F) Y(S,S)

So, we can classify these possible outcomes as Y=0,1,2,3.

Y(0) = Y(W,W) (both magazines take 0 days to arrive beyond Wednesday)

Y(1) = Y(W,T), Y(T,T), Y(T,W) (both magazines take 1 day to arrive beyond Wednesday)

Y(2) = Y(W,F), Y(T,F), Y(F,F) Y(F,W) Y(F,T) (both magazines arrive till Friday)

Y(3) = Y(W,S), Y(T,S), Y(F,S), Y(S,W), Y(S,T), Y(S,F), Y(S,S) (both magazines arrive till Saturday)

To calculate the PMF, we need to calculate the probability for each of the points in Y(0,1,2,3).

Y(0) = Y(W,W)

       = 0.26 x 0.26

Y(0) = 0.0676

Y(1) = Y(W,T) + Y(T,T) + Y(T,W)

      = (0.26 x 0.39) + (0.39 x 0.39) + (0.39 x 0.26)

      = 0.1014 + 0.1521 + 0.1014

Y(1) = 0.3549

Y(2) = Y(W,F) + Y(T,F) + Y(F,F) + Y(F,W) + Y(F,T)

  =(0.26 x 0.25) + (0.39 x 0.25) + (0.25 x 0.25) + (0.25 x 0.26) + (0.25 x 0.39)

  = 0.065 + 0.0975 + 0.0625 + 0.065 + 0.0975

Y(2) = 0.3875

Y(3) = Y(W,S) + Y(T,S) + Y(F,S) + Y(S,W) + Y(S,T) + Y(S,F) + Y(S,S)

      = (0.26 x 0.10) + (0.39 x 0.10) + (0.25 x 0.10) + (0.10 x 0.26) + (0.10 x 0.39) + (0.10 x 0.25) + (0.10 x 0.10)

       = 0.026 + 0.039 + 0.025 + 0.026 + 0.039 + 0.025 + 0.010

Y(3) = 0.19

y                 0             1              2          3

P(Y=y)   0.0676   0.3549   0.3875   0.19

The PMF plot is attached as a photo here.

7 0
3 years ago
A rectangular field will be fenced on all four sides. There will also be a line of fence across the field, parallel to the short
Dimas [21]

Answer:

150m by 300 m

Step-by-step explanation:

150×300=45000

all sides add up to 900m

150+150+300+300

3 0
3 years ago
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