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2 years ago

Help please desperate!!

Mathematics

1 answer:

zhenek [66]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

$V=\pi r^2h\\=\pi *4^2*3\\=48\pi$

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Use the fact that the mean of a geometric distribution is μ= 1 p and the variance is σ2= q p2. A daily number lottery chooses th

butalik [34]

Answer:

a). The mean = 1000

The variance = 999,000

The standard deviation = 999.4999

b). 1000 times , loss

Step-by-step explanation:

The mean of geometric distribution is given as , $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

And the variance is given by, $\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

Given : $p=\frac{1}{1000}$

= 0.001

The formulae of mean and variance are :

$\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{q}{p^2}$

$\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

a). Mean = $\mu = \frac{1}{p}$

= $\mu = \frac{1}{0.001}$

= 1000

Variance = $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-p}{p^2}$

= $\sigma ^2=\frac{1-0.001}{0.001^2}$

= 999,000

The standard deviation is determined by the root of the variance.

$\sigma = \sqrt{\sigma^2}$

= $\sqrt{999,000}$ = 999.4999

b). We expect to have play lottery 1000 times to win, because the mean in part (a) is 1000.

When we win the profit is 500 - 1 = 499

When we lose, the profit is -1

Expected value of the mean μ is the summation of a product of each of the possibility x with the probability P(x).

$\mu=\Sigma\ x\ P(x)= 499 \times 0.001+(-1) \times (1-0.001)$

= $ 0.50

Since the answer is negative, we are expected to make a loss.

4 0

2 years ago

Match each of the trigonometric expressions below with the equivalent non-trigonometric function from the following list. Enter

andreev551 [17]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

In each case, draw the right triangle which produces the inverse trig value. That is, label the two sides as needed, and calculate the third side.

It should be clear that

$tan(sin^{-1} x/4) = x/\sqrt{16-x^{2} }$

$sin(tan^{-1} x/4) = x/\sqrt{16+x^{2} }$

sin(2α) = 2 sinα cosα

So,

$1/2 sin(2sin^{-1} x/4) = (1/2)(x/4) * x/\sqrt{16-x^2} = x^{2} /(8\sqrt{16-x^2})$

See what you can do with the others.

6 0

2 years ago

Can any help me with this question

Y_Kistochka [10]

Ok...there are 6 days in the week that end in a y: Monday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday, Sunday.
Saturday is one out of the 6, so it's 1/6....If they want it as a percent, then divide 1 by 6, and multiply it by 100.

Hope I helped!

4 0

2 years ago

P(vanilla) =0.3 P(sundae)=0.2 P(vanilla and sundae) =0.15 find the probability that a customer ordered vanilla ice cream given t

Art [367]

Answer:

0.75

Step-by-step explanation:

P(A | B) = P(A and B) / P(B)

P(vanilla | sundae) = P(vanilla and sundae) / P(sundae)

P(vanilla | sundae) = 0.15 / 0.2

P(vanilla | sundae) = 0.75

6 0

2 years ago

Geometry questions, please help!! Will give 98 points to whoever provides the correct answers!!

loris [4]

6 √3. Short leg is half the hypotenuse is 6 so x = long leg so x= short leg times √3

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2 years ago

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