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NISA [10]
4 years ago
9

Sarah has gone to work for 60 days on 39 of those days she arrived at work before 8:30 a.m. On the rest of those days she arrive

s after 830 am what is the experimental probability she will arrive ther 830 am on the next day she does work
Mathematics
1 answer:
Ann [662]4 years ago
5 0
60 - 39 = 21
21 / 60 = 7 / 20

7/20

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Haley works at a candy store. There are 10 types of bulk candy. Find the probability that one type of candy will be chosen more
DIA [1.3K]

Answer:

Probability that one type of candy will be chosen more than once in 10 trials = 0.2639

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial experiment because

- A binomial experiment is one in which the probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials.

- It usually consists of a number of runs/trials with only two possible outcomes, a success or a failure. (10 trials, with the outcome of each trial being that we get the required candy or not)

- The outcome of each trial/run of a binomial experiment is independent of one another.

Binomial distribution function is represented by

P(X = x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ

n = total number of sample spaces = 10 trials

x = Number of successes required = number of times we want to pick a particular brand of candy = more than once, that is > 1

p = probability of success = probability of picking a particular brand of candy from a bulk with 10 different types of candies = (1/10) = 0.10

q = probability of failure = Probability of not picking our wanted candy = 1 - p = 1 - 0.1 = 0.90

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X ≤ 1)

P(X ≤ 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = ¹⁰C₀ (0.10)⁰ (0.90)¹⁰⁻⁰ = 0.3486784401

P(X = 1) = ¹⁰C₁ (0.10)¹ (0.90)¹⁰⁻¹ = 0.387420489

P(X ≤ 1) = 0.3486784401 + 0.387420489 = 0.7360989291

P(X > 1) = 1 - 0.7360989291 = 0.2639010709 = 0.2639

Hope this Helps!!!

5 0
3 years ago
Please help idk thisssss
Alekssandra [29.7K]
ANSWER
0.073 \% = 0.00073


EXPLANATION

Recall that,

\% =  \frac{1}{100}


That is why
100\%
is equivalent to
1.





This implies that,


0.073\% = 0.073 \times  \frac{1}{100}






This is the same as,


0.073\% = \frac{0.073}{100}


When we are dividing by
100
we move the decimal point backwards two times.


This implies that,

0.073\% = 0.00073


6 0
4 years ago
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notka56 [123]

Answer:

if x=6, then f(6)=11

8 0
4 years ago
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Please help on this ill give braneliest
horsena [70]

Answer:

-2.5

Step-by-step explanation:

25/-10 = -2.5

20/-8 = 2.5

10/-4 = 2.5

-5/2 = 2.5

so the answer is -2.5

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3 years ago
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RideAnS [48]

Answer:

perpendicular  bisector

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry if im wrong

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3 years ago
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