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Illusion [34]
3 years ago
9

The overall magnification of a compound microscope with an objective lens magnification of 5 and an eye piece magnification of 3

0 will be
Physics
2 answers:
Katen [24]3 years ago
3 0
Ok the answer to this is quite simple all you do is multiply the objective lens magnification times the eye piece magnification. So multiply 30 times 5. 30 x 5 = 150. So your answer is answer choice C. 150 Hope this helped you. :)
Ann [662]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

M = 150 times

Explanation:

When two or more lens are used to form image then final magnification of the image is given by the product of magnification due to each lens

so here we can say

M = m_1 \times m_2 \times m_3 ...............

so here we know that

m_1 = 5

m_2 = 30

now the total magnification is given as

M = m_1 \times m_2

M = 5 \times 30

M = 150

so total magnification is 150 times

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Light moves at a speed of around 1 million miles per hour<br>O<br>True<br>False​
AURORKA [14]

Answer:

False

Explanation:

In miles per hour, light speed is about 670,616,629 mph

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What determines how long it takes for the capacitor to charge?
myrzilka [38]

The time constant determines how long it takes for the capacitor to charge.

To find the answer, we have to know more about the time constant of the capacitor.

<h3>What is time constant?</h3>
  • The time it takes for a capacitor to discharge 36.8% of its charge in a discharging circuit or charge up to 63.2% of its maximum capacity in a charging circuit, given that it has no initial charge, is the time constant of a resistor-capacitor series combination.
  • The circuit's reaction to a step-up (or constant) voltage input is likewise determined by the time constant.
  • As a result, the time constant determines the circuit's cutoff frequency.

Thus, we can conclude that, the time constant determines how long it takes for the capacitor to charge.

Learn more about the time constant here:

brainly.com/question/17050299

#SPJ4

6 0
2 years ago
A small child has a wagon with a mass of 10 kilograms. The child pulls on the wagon with a force of 2 Newton’s. What is the acce
Zina [86]

PHYSICS

Mass = 10 kg

Force = 2 N

Acceleration = ____?

Answers :

f \:  = m \times a

2 = 10 × a

2 / 10 = a

0,2 m/s² = a ✅

7 0
3 years ago
(I) In a ballistic pendulum experiment, projectile 1 results in a maximum height h of the pendulum equal to 2.6 cm. A second pro
Kipish [7]

Answer:

The second projectile was 1.41 times faster than the first.

Explanation:

In the ballistic pendulum experiment, the speed (v) of the projectile is given by:  

v = \frac{m + M}{m} \cdot \sqrt{2gh}

<em>where m: is the mass of the projectile, M: is the mass of the pendulum, g: is the gravitational constant and h: is the maximum height of the pendulum.   </em>

To know how many times faster was the second projectile than the first, we need to take the ratio for the velocities for the projectiles 2 and 1:    

\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}} = \frac{\frac{m_{2} + M}{m_{2}} \cdot \sqrt{2gh_{2}}}{\frac{m_{1} + M}{m_{1}} \cdot \sqrt{2gh_{1}}}           (1)

<em>where m₁ and m₂ are the masses of the projectiles 1 and 2, respectively, and h₁ and h₂ are the maximum height reached by the pendulum by the projectiles 1 and 2, respectively.  </em>

Since the projectile 1 has the same mass that the projectile 2, we can simplify equation (1):

\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}} = \frac{\sqrt{h_{2}}}{\sqrt{h_{1}}}  

\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}} = \frac{\sqrt{5.2 cm}}{\sqrt{2.6 cm}}

\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}} = 1.41  

Therefore, the second projectile was 1.41 times faster than the first.  

I hope it helps you!

8 0
3 years ago
A charged particle A exerts a force of 2.45 μN to the right on charged particle B when the particles are 12.2 mm apart. Particle
Brilliant_brown [7]

Answer:

F_2 = 1.10 \mu N

Explanation:

As we know that the electrostatic force is a based upon inverse square law

so we have

F = \frac{kq_1q_2}{r^2}

now since it depends inverse on the square of the distance so we can say

\frac{F_1}{F_2} = \frac{r_2^2}{r_1^2}

now we know that

r_2 = 18.2 mm

r_1 = 12.2 mm

also we know that

F_1 = 2.45 \mu N

now from above equation we have

F_2 = \frac{r_1^2}{r_2^2} F_1

F_2 = \frac{12.2^2}{18.2^2}(2.45\mu N)

F_2 = 1.10 \mu N

5 0
3 years ago
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