With face value equal to $ 1000, present value equal to $ 1,065, we get nper = 16.5 * 2 = 33. Rate(ytm) is equal to 7.7%/2 = 3.85%.PMT (coupon payment) = $ 42.01.Coupon rate = (42.01 / 1000) = 4.20%.Therefore, the annual coupon rate is equal to 4.2 * 2 which equates to 8.40%
Answer: B. 48.48%
Explanation:
Debt ratio = Total Liabilities/ Total Assets
Total liabilities = Accounts payable + Notes payable + Long−term debt
= 100,000 + 450,000 + 1,050,000
= $1,600,000
Total Assets = $3,300,000
Debt ratio = 1,600,000/3,300,000
= 48.48%
Answer:
FV= $21,887.13
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Initial investment= $15,000
Number of periods= 6 years
Interest rate= 6.5% compounded annually
T<u>o calculate the future value of the investment, we need to use the following formula:</u>
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 15,000*(1.065^6)
FV= $21,887.13
Answer:
The correct answer is C. 7.22 percent
Explanation:
To find the arithmetic risk premium for the 5 year period, the formula is
Average risk premium for the period = Sum of risk premium for each year / number of years = ∑ra(i) - rf(i) / n
ra = asset or investment return / 100
rf = risk free return / 100
Where i represents each year.
Sum of risk premium for each year = (0.187 - 0.052) + (0.058 - 0.034) + (0.079 - 0.028) + (0.108 - 0.034) + (0.116 - 0.039) = 0.361
Average risk premium = 0.361 / 5 = 0.0722 = 7.22 / 100 = 7.22 percent
Answer:
D. Your wages would probably be higher because demand for baggers would be higher.
Explanation:
If I live in a community with fewer teenagers looking for grocery bagging jobs, the supply of labour would be lower. This would lead to an excess of demand over supply, wages would rise as a result.
I hope my answer helps you
