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3 years ago

What is the percent change of 6 to 36

Mathematics

1 answer:

Kaylis [27]3 years ago

4 0

There is a 483% Change

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NEED HELP ASAP! BRAINLIEST will be granted!!!

noname [10]

Answer:

$1.72222\ radians$

Step-by-step explanation:

Given radius $=9$ and arc length $=15.5$ .

$arc\ length=radius\times central\ angle(radians)\\Central\ angle(radians)=\frac{arc\ length}{radius} \\$

$central\ angle=\frac{15.5}{9}=1.72222\ radians$

7 0

3 years ago

Identify the volume of the figure in cubic units.

Alekssandra [29.7K]

Answer:

8 cubic units

Step-by-step explanation:

Count it. It's all visible for this question.

6 0

3 years ago

Which expression is equivalent to |8| + |-7|?

enot [183]

Answer: The answer would be 15

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps.

4 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas

WITCHER [35]

Answer:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

$P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2$

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

$P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)$

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

$P(B' \cup A')$

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

$(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'$

So then we can write the probability like this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')$

And using the complement rule we can do this:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)$

Since A and B are independent we have:

$P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32$

And then our final answer would be:

$P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68$

5 0

3 years ago

Why is it I paid for this app but i am not beneiting from it? will have to get rid! useless

Leona [35]

You paid ..I’m broke so I can’t lol ..in my opinion it can be helpful sometimes because some of the questions don’t get answered or it’s someone just saying “I don’t know

7 0

3 years ago