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FinnZ [79.3K]
3 years ago
11

A bag of coins contains 2 quarters, 3 dimes and 4 pennies. What is the probability of drawing a dime and then a quarter, without

replacement?
Mathematics
2 answers:
xz_007 [3.2K]3 years ago
7 0
The probability is 6 out of 9 times you will pull a dime. 
Naddik [55]3 years ago
3 0
2q
3d
4p
p(d + q)
2 + 3 = x out of 9.
5/9 is your answer.
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A cube had edge length 11 inches. Select all the expressions that could represent it’s volume. Two answers. A cube had edge leng
const2013 [10]

Answer:

6(11 ⋅  11) and    6(112) I think

Step-by-step explanation:

yea

6 0
3 years ago
What are all of the real roots of the following polynomial? f(x) x^4-24x^2-25
Greeley [361]

<u>Answer:</u>

x = ±5

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

We are given the following polynomial function and we are to find all of its real roots:

x^4-24x^2-25

Let y=x^2 so we can now write it as:

y^2-24y-25

Factorizing it to get:

(y^2+y)+(-25y-25)

y\left(y+1\right)-25\left(y+1\right)

\left ( y + 1 \right ) \left ( y - 2 5 \right)

Substitute back y=x^2 to get:

\left ( x^2 + 1 \right ) \left ( x^2 - 25 \right )

\left ( x^2 + 1 \right ) \left ( x + 5 \right ) \left ( x - 5 \right )

The quadratic factor has only complex roots. Therefore, the real roots are x = ±5.

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Tell whether the statement "All integers are rational numbers" is true or false. Explain your choice.
Y_Kistochka [10]

Answer:

True, all integers are rational numbers.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because each integer can be written as n/1 and integers can be positive and negative. For example, 3= 3/1 , 3 is the rational number. But all rational numbers like 1/2 =0.5 are not an integer. (fractions, decimals are not integers.)

6 0
3 years ago
Please help I have 15 minutes!!!!!
Ber [7]

Answer:

false

Step-by-step explanation:

Plug in the numbers given by the then statements. Plugging in -2 for x gives us -3 >= 3 which is false.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which statement is correct about y = cos^–1 x?
Maurinko [17]

Answer:

A) If the domain of y=cos(x) is restricted to [0, π], y=cos^-1(x) is a function.

Step-by-step explanation:

In order for the inverse function to be a function, the original must pass the horizontal line test: a horizontal line must intersect the function in only one place.

As you can see from the attached graph, restricting the cosine function to the domain [0, π] allows it to pass the horizontal line test, so its inverse will be a function.

__

Restricting the domain to [-π/2, π/2] does not limit cos(x) to something that will pass the horizontal line test.

5 0
3 years ago
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