Answer: P(x ≥ 1) = 0.893
Step-by-step explanation:
We would assume a binomial distribution for the outcome of the investment. The formula is expressed as
P(x = r) = nCr × p^r × q^(n - r)
Where
x represent the number of successes.
p represents the probability of success.
q = (1 - r) represents the probability of failure.
n represents the number of trials or sample.
From the information given,
p = 36% = 36/100 = 0.36
q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.36
q = 0.64
n = 5
Therefore,
P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x = 0)
P(x = 0) = 5C0 × 0.36^0 × 0.64^(5 - 0)
P(x = 0) = 1 × 1 × 0.107
P(x = 0) = 0.107
P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - 0.107 = 0.893
The second answer i believe
Answer:
f(2) = 28
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Firstly, note that -2i really is just z = 0 + (-2)i, so we see that Re(z) = 0 and Im(z) = -2.
When we're going from Cartesian to polar coordinates, we need to be aware of a few things! With Cartesian coordinates, we are dealing explicitly with x = blah and y = blah. With polar coordinates, we are looking at the same plane but with angle and magnitude in consideration.
Graphing z = -2i on the Argand diagram will look like a segment of the y axis. So we ask ourselves "What angle does this make with the positive x axis? One answer you could ask yourself is -90°! But at the same time, it's 270°! Why do you think this is the case?
What about the magnitude? How far is "-2i" stretched from the typical "i". And the answer is -2! Well... really it gets stretched by a factor of 2 but in the negative direction!
Putting all of this together gives us:
z = |mag|*(cos(angle) + isin(angle))
= 2*cos(270°) + isin(270°)).
To verify, let's consider what cos(270°) and sin(270°) are.
If you graph cos(x) and look at 270°, you get 0.
If you graph sin(x) and look at 270°, you get -1.
So 2*(cos(270°) + isin(270°)) = 2(0 + -1*i) = -2i as expected.
