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Alexxx [7]
2 years ago
7

How do I turn -6.3 into a fraction?

Mathematics
1 answer:
evablogger [386]2 years ago
7 0
-6.3 into a fraction is -6 and 3/10. its a mixed number!
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When June sits down today to read she notices she is on page 20 of a 200 page book. She decides to read 4 pages of this book eve
Olegator [25]
The answer is b. 60 || 4x10=40, 40+20=60
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3 years ago
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Please someone can help me with #13, 15 and 16 Thanks.
ladessa [460]
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3 years ago
A couple intends to have two children, and suppose that approximately 52% of births are male and 48% are female.
Pachacha [2.7K]

a) Probability of both being males is 27%

b) Probability of both being females is 23%

c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

a)

The probability that the birth is a male can be written as

p(m) = 0.52 (which corresponds to 52%)

While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as

p(f) = 0.48 (which corresponds to 48%)

Here we want to calculate the probability that over  2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male  does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:

p(mm)=p(m)\cdot p(m)

And substituting, we find

p(mm)=0.52\cdot 0.52 = 0.27

So, 27%.

b)

In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability

p(ff)

As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:

p(ff)=p(f)\cdot p(f)

And substituting

p(f)=0.48

We find:

p(ff)=0.48\cdot 0.48=0.23

Which means 23%.

c)

In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:

- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely p(mf)

- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely p(fm)

So, this probability is

p(mf Ufm)=p(mf)+p(fm)

We have:

p(mf)=p(m)\cdot p(f)=0.52\cdot 0.48=0.25

p(fm)=p(f)\cdot p(m)=0.48\cdot 0.52=0.25

Therefore, this probability is

p(mfUfm)=0.25+0.25=0.50

So, 50%.

Learn more about probabilities:

brainly.com/question/5751004

brainly.com/question/6649771

brainly.com/question/8799684

brainly.com/question/7888686

#LearnwithBrainly

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3 years ago
Mary sells lemonade at $1.50 a glass.  She spent $8.00 on supplies.  She ended with more than $28.00
Elena-2011 [213]

Answer:

(C.) 1.50n – 8.00 > 28.00

Hope this helped you!!!

<u><em>Love,</em></u>

<u><em>Morgan Taylor!</em></u>

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X to the power of 2 subtract 3x for x=4
Helen [10]
First, X^2 while x is 4 =4^2, which is 4x4, which is 16 
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