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Gennadij [26K]
3 years ago
7

Why do scientist use light years instead to measure space instead of kilometers?

Physics
2 answers:
Mashutka [201]3 years ago
8 0
A light year is also a theoretical distance, meaning that we do not actually have a tool for measuring it, like we do meter sticks. Also, think about the vastness of space. The light we see from stars are about 1/64 of the Milky Way Galaxy, if not less. So yes, light years greatly reduces the amount of numbers used to measure distance. Using kilometers would be much too cumbersome.
IrinaK [193]3 years ago
5 0
The reason scientists use light years instead of kilometres is becasue a light year is the distance traveled by light in one year, and if we actually did the math (ill just give it to you)9.4605289*10^{15} meters to put that into perspective a kilometer is 1000 meters or 1.0*10^{3} meters. if they mesured everything in kilometers they would have to use even bigger numbers than they already do.
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C

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First the water heats up to the boiling point ( temp increases)

  then, as it boils it remains at constant temp ( boiling point)

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When two waves in the same medium hit each other, the resulting displacement of the medium is
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An electron in a television tube is accelerated uniformly from rest to a speed of 8.4\times 10^7~\text{m/s}8.4×10 ​7 ​​ m/s over
stich3 [128]

Answer:

P=3.42×10^-6 J/s

Explanation:

From the kinematics of motion with constant acceleration we know that :  

vf^2=vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

Where :

• vf , vi, are the the final and the initial velocity of the electron  

• a is the acceleration of the electron  

• xf , xi are the final and the initial position of the electron .

Strategy for solving the problem : at first from the given information we calculate the acceleration of the electron.  

Givens: vf = 8.4 x 10^7 m/s , vi, = 0 m/s , xf = 0.025 m and xi = 0 m  

vf^2 =vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

vf^2-vi^2=2*a(xf-xi)

2*a(xf-xi)= vf^2-vi^2

          a = (vf^2-vi^2)/2(xf-xi)

Pluging known information to get :

a = (vf^2-vi^2)/2(xf-xi)

  = 1.411 × 10^17

From the acceleration and the previous Eq. we can calculate the final velocity of the electron but a new position xf = 0.01 m  

so,

vf^2 =vi^2+2*a(xf-xi)

vf^2 =5.312× 10^7

From the following Eq. we can calculate the time elapsed in this motion .  

xf =xi+vi*t+1/2*a*t

xf =xi+vi*t+1/2*a*t

  t=√2(xf-xi)/a

 t=3.765×10^-10 s

now we can use the power P Eq.  

 P=W/Δt => ΔK/Δt  

Where: the work done W change the kinetic energy K of the electron ,

ΔK=Kf-Ki=>1/2*m*vf^2-1/2*m*vi^2

P=1/2*m*vf^2-1/2*m*vi^2/Δt

P=3.42×10^-6 J/s

6 0
3 years ago
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