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Morgarella [4.7K]
4 years ago
11

An acorn with a mass of 0.0300 kilograms falls from a tree. What is its kinetic energy when it reaches a velocity of 5.00 m/s? 1

.47 J .075 J 0.375 J cannot be determined without knowing how far the acorn has fallen
Physics
2 answers:
Tju [1.3M]4 years ago
6 0
KE = 1/2 m v^2.

That's 0.375 J.
ozzi4 years ago
6 0

Answer

Kinetic energy of acorn is 0.375 J .

Explanation:

Formula

Kinetic energy is defined by

K.E = \frac{1}{2}mv^{2}

Where m is mass and v is velocity .

As given

An acorn with a mass of 0.0300 kilograms falls from a tree with a velocity of 5.00 m/s .

m = 0.0300 Kg

v = 5 m/s

Putting all the values in the formula

K.E = \frac{1}{2}\times 0.0300\times 5\times 5

K.E = \frac{1\times 0.0300\times 5\times 5}{2}

K.E = \frac{0.75}{2}

K.E = 0.375 J

Therefore the kinetic energy of acorn is 0.375 J .

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Komok [63]

Answer:

Milton Hershey

Steve Jobs

Simon Cowell

Thomas Edison

Explanation:

6 0
4 years ago
Starting from rest, a disk rotates about its central axis with constant angular acceleration. in 6.00 s, it rotates 44.5 rad. du
Klio2033 [76]

a. The disk starts at rest, so its angular displacement at time t is

\theta=\dfrac\alpha2t^2

It rotates 44.5 rad in this time, so we have

44.5\,\mathrm{rad}=\dfrac\alpha2(6.00\,\mathrm s)^2\implies\alpha=2.47\dfrac{\rm rad}{\mathrm s^2}

b. Since acceleration is constant, the average angular velocity is

\omega_{\rm avg}=\dfrac{\omega_f+\omega_i}2=\dfrac{\omega_f}2

where \omega_f is the angular velocity achieved after 6.00 s. The velocity of the disk at time t is

\omega=\alpha t

so we have

\omega_f=\left(2.47\dfrac{\rm rad}{\mathrm s^2}\right)(6.00\,\mathrm s)=14.8\dfrac{\rm rad}{\rm s}

making the average velocity

\omega_{\rm avg}=\dfrac{14.8\frac{\rm rad}{\rm s}}2=7.42\dfrac{\rm rad}{\rm s}

Another way to find the average velocity is to compute it directly via

\omega_{\rm avg}=\dfrac{\Delta\theta}{\Delta t}=\dfrac{44.5\,\rm rad}{6.00\,\rm s}=7.42\dfrac{\rm rad}{\rm s}

c. We already found this using the first method in part (b),

\omega=14.8\dfrac{\rm rad}{\rm s}

d. We already know

\theta=\dfrac\alpha2t^2

so this is just a matter of plugging in t=12.0\,\mathrm s. We get

\theta=179\,\mathrm{rad}

Or to make things slightly more interesting, we could have taken the end of the first 6.00 s interval to be the start of the next 6.00 s interval, so that

\theta=44.5\,\mathrm{rad}+\left(14.8\dfrac{\rm rad}{\rm s}\right)t+\dfrac\alpha2t^2

Then for t=6.00\,\rm s we would get the same \theta=179\,\rm rad.

7 0
4 years ago
Two blocks A and B have a weight of 11 lb and 5 lb , respectively. They are resting on the incline for which the coefficients of
Alchen [17]

Answer:

\theta=10.20^{\circ}  

\Delta l=0.10 ft    

Explanation:

First of all, we analyze the system of blocks before starting to move.

\Sum F_{x}=P_{A}sin(\theta)+P_{B}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{fB}=0  

\Sum F_{x}=11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16N_{A}-0.23N_{B}=0

11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16P_{A}cos(\theta)-0.23P_{B}cos(\theta)=0

11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0

11sin(\theta)+5sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-0.23*5cos(\theta)=0  

16sin(\theta)-2.91cos(\theta)=0  

tan(\theta)=0.18  

\theta=arctan(0.18)  

\theta=10.20^{\circ}  

Hence, the incline angle θ for which both blocks begin to slide is 10.20°.

Now, if we do a free body diagram of block A we have that after the block moves, the spring force must be taken into account.  

P_{A}sin(\theta)-F_{fA}-F_{spring}=0

Where:

F_{spring} = k\Delta l=2.1\Delta l

P_{A}sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)-2.1\Delta l=0

\Delta l=\frac{11sin(\theta)-0.16*11cos(\theta)}{2.1}

\Delta l=0.10 ft    

Therefore, the required stretch or compression in the connecting spring is 0.10 ft.

I hope it helps you!

4 0
4 years ago
0.002 written in scientific notation
Oliga [24]

Answer:0,002 = 2 x 10⁻³

Explanation:

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3 0
4 years ago
How is the wavelength of a longitudinal wave determined?
Tju [1.3M]

Before answering the question, first we have to understand a longitudinal wave.

A longitudinal wave is a type of mechanical wave in which the direction of wave propagation is parallel to the particle vibration of the medium.

In this type of wave, there will be compressions and rarefactions. Compressions are the high pressure regions where the particles of the medium are very close to each other. The rarefactions are the low pressure regions of a longitudinal wave where the particles are not so close to each other.

Hence, a longitudinal wave is a series of compressions and rarefactions.

The wavelength of a longitudinal wave is defined as the distance between two successive compressions or rarefactions.

Hence, the correct answer to the question is C) by measuring the distance between adjacent rarefactions.

8 0
3 years ago
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