Its {3, 3, 6, 7, 9}
because the difference in values of 6 and the other numbers are the same as difference between 5 and the other numbers in { 2, 2, 5, 6, 8}
It would be a 50/50 chance that all of them would be girls
Answer:
B. 5.2
Step-by-step explanation:
<em><u>:-[ </u></em><em><u>y</u></em><em><u>o</u></em><em><u>u</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>w</u></em><em><u>i</u></em><em><u>l</u></em><em><u>l</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>k</u></em><em><u>n</u></em><em><u>o</u></em><em><u>w</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>t</u></em><em><u>o</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>h</u></em><em><u>a</u></em><em><u>v</u></em><em><u>e</u></em><em><u> </u></em><em><u>b</u></em><em><u>r</u></em><em><u>a</u></em><em><u>i</u></em><em><u>n</u></em><em><u>l</u></em><em><u>y</u></em><em><u>:-) </u></em>
5 2/3 is the answer to your question
24+15+11=50, the total number of times the markers were chosen.
Since 11 of these 50 tries resulted in a red and blue marker, the probability is 11/50. This is equal to 0.22 or 22%.
