1) Our marbles will be blue, red, and green. You need two fractions that can be multiplied together to make 1/6. There are two sets of numbers that can be multiplied to make 6: 1 and 6, and 2 and 3. If you give the marbles a 1/1 chance of being picked, then there's no way that a 1/6 chance can be present So we need to use a 1/3 and a 1/2 chance. 2 isn't a factor of 6, but 3 is. So we need the 1/3 chance to become apparent first. Therefore, 3 of the marbles will need to be one colour, to make a 1/3 chance of picking them out of the 9. So let's say 3 of the marbles are green. So now you have 8 marbles left, and you need a 1/2 chance of picking another colour. 8/2 = 4, so 4 of the marbles must be another colour, to make a 1/2 chance of picking them. So let's say 4 of the marbles are blue. We know 3 are green and 4 are blue, 3 + 4 is 7, so the last 2 must be red.
The problem could look like this:
A bag contains 4 blue marbles, 2 red marbles, and 3 green marbles. What are the chances she will pick 1 blue and 1 green marble?
You should note that picking the blue first, then the green, will make no difference to the overall probability, it's still 1/6. Don't worry, I checked
2) a - 2% as a probability is 2/100, or 1/50. The chance of two pudding cups, as the two aren't related, both being defective in the same packet are therefore 1/50 * 1/50, or 1/2500.
b - 1,000,000/2500 = 400
400 packages are defective each year
Answer:
1, 4, 9, 16,25, 36, 49, 64, 81, 100, 121, 144
Step-by-step explanation: hope it helps
Answer:
a little late
205 1/5 is your answer
Step-by-step explanation:
break down the 3-D figure
Find area of triangle A=1/2bh
=1/2(8 inch)(6 9/10inch)
=1/2(8 inch)(69/10 inch)
=138/5 square inch
then multiply two because you have 2 triangles
=138/5 (2)
= 276/5 square inch
= 55 1/5 sq.in
Find area of rectangle
A = lw
=6 1/4 in (8 in)
= 25/4 (8 in.)
= 50 sq. in.
then multiply by 3 because of the three rectangles
= 50 sq. inch (3)
= 150 sq. in.
Add all together
55 1/5 sq. inch + 150 sq. inch = 205 1/5 sq. inch
Answer:
n = 70
Step-by-step explanation:
14 * x < 80
x = 6 won't work
14 * 6 = 84 which beyond the boundry.
14 * 5 = 70 which is less than 80 and is divisible by 14
14 * 3 = 42
70 does not have a 3 in it.
So the largest number that has 14 in it and is less than 80 is 70
