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Verdich [7]
3 years ago
11

Ornaments, Inc., is an all-equity firm with a total market value of $531,000 and 19,600 shares of stock outstanding. Management

believes the earnings before interest and taxes (EBIT) will be $74,700 if the economy is normal. If there is a recession, EBIT will be 15 percent lower, and if there is a boom, EBIT will be 25 percent higher. The tax rate is 34 percent. What is the EPS in a recession
Business
1 answer:
Anna35 [415]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The EPS in recession is 2.14 $/share.

Explanation:

If there is a recession, EBIT will be 15% lower than $74,700.

That means an EBIT of $74,700*(1-0.15)=$63,495.

The net income that will be paid in dividends is

Net income = EBIT*(1-tax rate) = $ 63,495 * (1-0.34) = $ 41,906.7

If there are 19,600 shares of stock outstanding and no preferred dividends, the EPS can be calculated as

EPS = (Net dividend pay / common shares) = 41,906.7 / 19,600

EPS = 2.14 $/share.

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inessss [21]

Answer:

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Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which of the following is a reason for advertisers to divert their funds from traditional media? a. Increased funds available fo
Allisa [31]

Consumers’ desire to control their information environment is a reason for advertisers to divert their funds from traditional media.

C) Consumer's desire to control their information environment.

<u>Explanation:</u>

Earlier the information sources were limited and the audience didn't have many options to choose from. The elites and literates would opt for print media and the common audience would opt for radio and other medium of information.

The advertisement agencies would also target the audience based on the information source. Bit with the growing technological advancement, the consumer can now choose their own preferable source of information and hence the advertisers diverted their funds from the traditional media.

7 0
3 years ago
In year 1, Firm A paid $50,000 cash to purchase a tangible business asset. In year 1 and year 2, it deducted $3,140 and $7,200 d
Tatiana [17]

<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

a.<u>Compute Firm A’s net cash flow attributable to the asset purchase in each year.Year 2011: </u>

Cost of Asset  = ($50,000)

Tax Savings (Annual Depreciation x Tax Rate) (\$ 3,140 \times 35 \%)  = $1,099

Net Cash Flow  = ($48,901)

Year 2012:

Cost of Asset   = N/A

Tax Savings (Annual Depreciation x Tax Rate) (\$ 7,200 \times 35 \%)  = $2,520

Net Cash Flow = $2,520

b. <u>Compute Firm A’s adjusted basis in the asset at the end of each year. </u>

INITIAL COST OF ASSET = $50000

DEPRECIATION YEAR 1 = (3140)

ADJUSTED BASIS AT END OF YEAR 1 = $46860

YEAR 2 DEPRECIATION = (7200)

ADJUSTED BASIS AT END OF YEAR 2 = $39660

8 0
3 years ago
A T-shirt supplier is willing to sell her shirts for $5 each, but she is able to negotiate a distribution deal at $7 each. The e
expeople1 [14]
<span>The extra $2 that she made beyond the $5 she was willing to sell her T-shirts for represents producer surplus. Producer surplus is defined as the difference between the amount of money the producer is willing to supply versus the amount actually supplied. Because she was willing to sell for $5 but sold for $7 and had an increase in money supplied, this example is one of producer surplus. </span>
3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that a task in a project has the following time estimates: to optimistic completion time 11 weeks tm most likely complet
vekshin1

Answer:

6 weeks

Explanation:

Optimistic Completion Time  -  11 weeks

Most likely completion time   -   14 weeks

Pessimistic completion time   -   23 weeks

Compute the expected task variance in weeks. Recall that Variance is a measure of dispersion - a measure that shows the distance or spread between or among values of a variable.

Expected Variance is the average of the variance values.

First,

the variance between optimistic CT and most likely CT is (14 - 11) = 3 weeks

Second,

the variance between pessimistic CT and most likely CT is (23 - 14) = 9 weeks

The expected variance is the average of these two values and that's (3 + 9)/2 = 12/2  = 6 weeks

<em>So the expected variance from the mean completion time of 14 weeks is 6 weeks before or 6 weeks after. This accommodates both the optimist and the pessimist. </em>

8 0
3 years ago
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