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sleet_krkn [62]
3 years ago
5

How would write 42 as an operation???

Mathematics
2 answers:
ArbitrLikvidat [17]3 years ago
7 0
I don't really get your question. But, I will try my best to answer it. 42 is a whole number and you could use the number for any operation.

I hope this helps:)
xz_007 [3.2K]3 years ago
3 0
You can do 7*6 which would give you 42 if thats what you mean
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DETERMINE THE VALUE OF X BASED ON THE IMAGE DOWN BELOW:
Andre45 [30]
The answer is 80! If you ever see any angle like that where it’s just two lines (I don’t know how to explain it/forgot what it’s called) it will be the same as the other angle.
5 0
3 years ago
The Center for Medicare and Medical Services reported that there were 295,000 appeals for hospitalization and other Part A Medic
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

(a) 0.00605

(b) 0.0403

(c) 0.9536

(d) 0.98809

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that 40% of first-round appeals were successful (The Wall Street Journal, October 22, 2012) and suppose ten first-round appeals have just been received by a Medicare appeals office.

This situation can be represented through Binomial distribution as;

P(X=r)= \binom{n}{r}p^{r}(1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,....

where,  n = number of trials (samples) taken = 10

            r = number of success

            p = probability of success which in our question is % of first-round

                   appeals that were successful, i.e.; 40%

So, here X ~ Binom(n=10,p=0.40)

(a) Probability that none of the appeals will be successful = P(X = 0)

     P(X = 0) = \binom{10}{0}0.40^{0}(1-0.40)^{10-0}

                   = 1*0.6^{10} = 0.00605

(b) Probability that exactly one of the appeals will be successful = P(X = 1)

     P(X = 1) = \binom{10}{1}0.40^{1}(1-0.40)^{10-1}

                  = 10*0.4^{1} *0.6^{10-1} = 0.0403

(c) Probability that at least two of the appeals will be successful = P(X>=2)

    P(X >= 2) = 1 - P(X = 0) - P(X = 1)

                     = 1 - \binom{10}{0}0.40^{0}(1-0.40)^{10-0} - \binom{10}{1}0.40^{1}(1-0.40)^{10-1}

                     = 1 - 0.00605 - 0.0403 = 0.9536

(d) Probability that more than half of the appeals will be successful =             P(X > 0.5)

  For this probability we will convert our distribution into normal such that;

   X ~ N(\mu = n*p=4,\sigma^{2}= n*p*q = 2.4)

  and standard normal z has distribution as;

      Z = \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma} ~ N(0,1)

  P(X > 0.5) = P( \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma} > \frac{0.5-4}{\sqrt{2.4} } ) = P(Z > -2.26) = P(Z < 2.26) = 0.98809

3 0
3 years ago
Please help me answer this question
lbvjy [14]

A. Let s be the smallest integer
B. We must add 2 to get the next greater integer
C. Second integer is s+2
D. s+(s+2)=118
2•s+2=118
2s+2-2=118-2
2s=116
2s/2=116/2
s=58
If the smallest even integer is 58 the consecutive integer is 58+2=60
Verify
58+60=118 ✔️
7 0
3 years ago
What is the PV of an ordinary annuity with 10 payments of $2,700 if the appropriate interest rate is 5.5%? Group of answer choic
Verizon [17]

Answer:

The PV of an ordinary annuity with 10 payments of $2,700 if the appropriate interest rate is 5.5% is $20,352.

Step-by-step explanation:

P = PMT [(1 - (1 / (1 + r)^{n})) / r]

= 2,700 [(1 - (1 / (1 + 0.055)^{10})) / 0.05]

= 2,700 [(1 - (1 / (1 + 0.055)^{10})) / 0.05]

= 2,700 [(1 - (1 / (1.708)) / 0.05]

= 2,700 [(1 - 0.58)) / 0.05]

= 2,700 [(0.41457) / 0.05]

= 2,700(7.53)

=$ 20,352

5 0
3 years ago
Help please ! order the side lengths GH , HI , IG from least to greatest
jok3333 [9.3K]

Answer:

IH < IG < HG

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this equation remember that angle measurements correspond with sides. So, the largest angle will be opposite of the longest side and the smallest angle will be opposite of the shortest side.

First, you need to find m<I; do this by subtracting 52 and 45 from 180. This means that m<I=83, making it the largest angle. Therefore, the angles, in order of least to greatest, are <G, <H, <I. So, to find the final answer, find the sides opposite of each of the angles. This means the answer is IH < IG < HG.

7 0
3 years ago
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