Please help quick need it done now

How are the functions y=x and y=x-3 related? How are their graphs related? (7 pa

quester [9]

Answer:

Each output for the second function $y_2=x-3$ is 3 less than the corresponding output for the first function $y_1=x.$

The graph of the function $y_2=x-3$ is the graph of the function $y_1=x$ translated down 3 units.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Function $y_1=x$

Function $y_2=x-3$

Find: How are the functions related? How are their graphs related?

Substitute $x=y_1$ into the second function:

$y_2=y_1-3$

This means that each output for the second function $y_2=x-3$ is 3 less than the corresponding output for the first function $y_1=x.$

The graph of the function $y_2=x-3$ is the graph of the function $y_1=x$ translated down 3 units.

8 0

4 years ago

PLEASE PLEASE PLEASE HELP, ILL GIVE 98 POINTS ( show your work)

VLD [36.1K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

there is a linear relationship

from the table, x changes by +6, y changes by -3 every time

so that means the slope is constant i.e. its a straight line

slope=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1)=-3/6

= -1/2

take the 1st pt, ( 1, -4 )

(y-(-4)) = slop * (x-1)

y+4 = -1/2*(x-1)

ans is A

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Determine whether the sequence converges or diverges. If it converges, find the limit. (If an answer does not exist, enter DNE.)

Nata [24]

Answer:

$a_{i} = \frac{(-3)^{i}}{4\cdot i!}$ converges.

Step-by-step explanation:

The convergence analysis of this sequence is done by Ratio Test. That is to say:

$r = \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_{n}}$ , where sequence converges if and only if $|r| < 1$ .

Let be $a_{i} = \frac{(-3)^{i}}{4\cdot i!}$ , the ratio for the expression is:

$r =-\frac{3}{n+1}$

$|r| = \frac{3}{n+1}$

Inasmuch $n$ becomes bigger, then $r \longrightarrow 0$ . Hence, $a_{i} = \frac{(-3)^{i}}{4\cdot i!}$ converges.

5 0

3 years ago

Need answer asap.thanks

Marrrta [24]

Answer:

$0.46=\frac{23}{50}$

Step-by-step explanation:

To write any decimal as a fraction you divide by 1 and multiply by a number (ranging from 10, 100, 1000 etc.) that will make 0.46 a whole number, this will explain:

Let x = $\frac{0.46}{1}$

10x = $10*\frac{0.46}{1} =\frac{4.6}{10}$

100x = $100*\frac{0.46}{1}=\frac{46}{100}$ this is our perfect fraction, now we simplify later

100x - 10x = $\frac{46}{100} -\frac{4.6}{10}$

90x = $\frac{46}{100} -\frac{4.6}{10} =0$ this is to confirm both fractions are equal

x is the same as $\frac{0.46}{1}$ as $\frac{4.6}{10}$ as $\frac{46}{100}$ but here x = $\frac{46}{100}$ because a fraction has to have no decimals.

So 0.46 is equal any of these values, as a fraction, on the other hand, it's improperly equal to $\frac{46}{100} = \frac{23}{50}$ here I divided by 2 to bring down the proper fraction. (fraction at its simplest form)

6 0

3 years ago

Find the value <img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%282x%290" id="TexFormula1" title="(2x)0" alt="(2x)0" align="absmiddle" cla

charle [14.2K]

$\bf {(2x)}^{0} = 1$

The rule is that any number raised to the power of 0 equals to 1.

So if 2 or 1,000,000 is raised to the power of 0 it equals 1.

But 0 to the power 0 is undefined!

0 to any positive power is 0, so 0 to the power 0 should be 0. But any positive number to the power 0 is 1, so 0 to the power 0 should be 1. We can't have it both ways. Underlying this argument is the same idea as was used in the attempt to define 0 divided by 0.

5 0

3 years ago