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Vladimir79 [104]
3 years ago
12

What is 0.06x10 to the 2 power

Mathematics
2 answers:
Brut [27]3 years ago
6 0
0.06 x 10 2 power this you can move the decimal twice to the right or you know 10x10=100 you can multiply 0.06 by 100 and you will still get 6 for both ways
jarptica [38.1K]3 years ago
6 0
3600 cuz u multply 60 x 60 and u get that
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How do you do this question?
Maslowich

Answer:

11.736

Step-by-step explanation:

You take 82.80 divided by 12 = 6.9 then take 9 divided by 6.9 = 1.304 repeating then times by three =3.912 then times by 9 = 35.208 then divide by 3 = 11.736

7 0
3 years ago
A punch bowl is in the shape of a cylinder he height of the Punch bowl is 10 inches and the diameter of the Punch bowl is 14 inc
mixas84 [53]

Answer:

The volume required to fill the punch bowl till 1 inch from the top is 1385.44 inches³

Step-by-step explanation:

Total Height of the punch bowl = 10 inches

Diameter of the bowl = d = 14 inches

Since, radius is half of the diameter, the radius of the bowl would be = r = 7 inches.

The shape of punch bowl is given to be cylindrical and we have to find the volume of the bowl. The formula to calculate the volume of a cylinder is:

Volume=\pi r^{2} h

Here, h represents the height.

We have to find the volume to fill the bowl till 1 inch from the top. Since, the height of bowl is 10 inches, we have to fill it to 9 inches. Therefore, the value of height(h) which we will substitute in the formula will be 9. Using the values in the formula gives us:

Volume =\pi (7)^{2} \times 9\\\\ Volume =441\pi \\\\ Volume = 1385.44

This means, the volume required to fill the punch bowl till 1 inch from the top is 1385.44 inches³

4 0
3 years ago
The sum of 4 times a number and 8 is between 0 and 12
Andreas93 [3]
I believe the number is -1
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is approximate circumference of circle with diameter of 42 in lowest terms​
klio [65]

Answer:

<h2>132</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

circumference of circle

= π x d

= 22/7 x 42

= 22 x 6

= 132

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
a candy machine holds 500 pieces of candy, 20%, percent of which are blue. customers get an srs of 4 pieces of candy per purchas
Greeley [361]

Answer:

p(b = 1) = 0.4096 = 40.96%

Step-by-step explanation:

For each candy, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is blue, or it is not. The probability of a candy being blue is independent of any other candy. This means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

20% are blue

This means that p = 0.2

Sample of 4

This means that n = 4.

Which of the following would find p(b=1)?

P(X = 1). So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 1) = C_{4,1}.(0.2)^{1}.(0.8)^{3} = 0.4096

So, p(b = 1) = 0.4096 = 40.96%

6 0
3 years ago
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