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lorasvet [3.4K]
3 years ago
10

4/9 of students at school are boys if there are 2601 students at the school how many are girls

Mathematics
2 answers:
hram777 [196]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1445

Step-by-step explanation:

2601*(9/9-4/9)

kow [346]3 years ago
3 0

(9/9 - 4/9) = 5/9

5/9×2601 = 1445

Answer = Girls are 1445

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LCM of x<sup>2</sup>+5x+6 and x<sup>2</sup>-x-6 is ………………………
sergejj [24]

Answer:

(x^2 - 9)(x + 2)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

x^2 + 5x + 6

x^2 - x - 6

Required:

LCM of the polynomials

SOLUTION:

Step 1: Factorise each polynomial

x^2 + 5x + 6

x^2 + 3x + 2x + 6

(x^2 + 3x) + (2x + 6)

x(x + 3) + 2(x + 3)

(x + 2)(x + 3)

x^2 - x - 6

x^2 - 3x +2x - 6

x(x - 3) + 2(x - 3)

(x + 2)(x - 3)

Step 2: find the product of each factor that is common in both polynomials.

We have the following,

x^2 + 5x + 6 = (x + 2)(x + 3)

x^2 - x - 6 = (x + 2)(x - 3)

The common factors would be: =>

(x + 2) (this is common in both polynomials, so we would take just one of them as a factor.

(x + 3) and,

(x - 3)

Their product = (x - 3)(x + 3)(x +2) = (x^2 - 9)(x + 2)

4 0
3 years ago
You are at a stall at a fair where you have to throw a ball at a target. There are two versions of the game. In the first
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Alternative 1

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=3, p=0.1)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(X=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(X=0)=(3C0)(0.1)^0 (1-0.1)^{3-0}=0.729

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.729

Alternative 2

Let Y the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

Y \sim Binom(n=5, p=0.05)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(Y)=(nCy)(p)^y (1-p)^{n-y}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCy=\frac{n!}{(n-y)! y!}

We can find the probability of loss like this P(Y=0) and if we find this probability we got this:

P(Y=0)=(5C0)(0.05)^0 (1-0.05)^{5-0}=0.774

And the probability of loss with the first wersion is 0.774

As we can see the best alternative is the first version since the probability of loss is lower than the probability of loss on version 2.

4 0
3 years ago
Steven is taking out a loan in the amount of $5,000. His choices are a 3-year loan at 5% simple interest and a 5 -year loan at 4
Andre45 [30]
I do believe it’s 250$

**The first choice:**
Principal: 5,000$
Rate(%): 5
Time(year): 3 years
A: 5,750$

**Second choice**
Principal: 5,000$
Rate(%): 4%
Time(year): 5 years
A: 6,000$

6,000-5,750=250$

Hope this helps!
8 0
3 years ago
Combine like terms: 80 + 50m + 65 + 40m​
Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

90m+145

Step-by-step explanation:

80 + 50m + 65 + 40m​

90m+145

3 0
3 years ago
Darren is on a super efficient diet. He started with 210 pounds 2 months ago and he now weighs 150 pounds . Find his percent of
ikadub [295]

Answer:

29%

Step-by-step explanation:

210-150/210 = 60/210 or 6/21

Now we have to find the percent out of 100 so we have to find out 100/21 to see what we have to multiply by to get to 100 so we can do the same with the 2 (numerator) so 1000/21= 4 16/21

then we have to multiply the 6 by 4 16/21 which is about 29%

8 0
3 years ago
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