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aleksklad [387]
3 years ago
8

Help in maths question!

Mathematics
2 answers:
aksik [14]3 years ago
7 0

(i) Suppose ∠ADB =∠ x. Since a triangle's angles sum up to 180°, we know that x+α+β=180°. We also know that x+∠ADC=180, so therefore α+β=∠ADC

(ii) The same logic that a triangle's interior angles equal 180°, we know that α+α+β+∠DAC=180. Therefore, 180-α-α-β=∠DAC.

(iii) We know that ∠DAE = 180-2α+β, which means 180-∠DAE = 2α+β, which means (2α+β)/2 which finally means α+β/2, which we will call p. We will call ∠EDC k. Now we know that p+k=α+β, which means k=α+β-p, then α+β-p, but p = (α+β/2), so we plug that in. Finally, everything can be simplified into 3/2*p.

mrs_skeptik [129]3 years ago
7 0

(i) Suppose ∠ADB =∠ x. Since a triangle's angles sum up to 180°, we know that x+α+β=180°. We also know that x+∠ADC=180, so therefore α+β=∠ADC

(ii) The same logic that a triangle's interior angles equal 180°, we know that α+α+β+∠DAC=180. Therefore, 180-α-α-β=∠DAC.

(iii) We know that ∠DAE = 180-2α+β, which means 180-∠DAE = 2α+β, which means (2α+β)/2 which finally means α+β/2, which we will call p. We will call ∠EDC k. Now we know that p+k=α+β, which means k=α+β-p, then α+β-p, but p = (α+β/2), so we plug that in. Finally, everything can be simplified into 3/2*p.

Read more on Brainly.com - brainly.com/question/11502647#readmore

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Step-by-step explanation:

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tankabanditka [31]

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P(B) =\frac{1}{2}.

Step-by-step explanation:

We use the Venn diagram to calculate the desired probabilities.

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Then note that in the region representing the intercept of A and B there are two possible values.

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P(B) = \frac{3}{6} = \frac{1}{2}.

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P(A)*P(B)=\frac{2}{3}*\frac{1}{2}=\frac{1}{3}

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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