There is a 2 in 4 chance for a red shirt
there is a 1 in 2 chance for blue pants
There is (I think) a 1 in 6 chance for the chosen pain to be worn.
The number of bottles of soda purchased is 10 and the number of bottles of juice purchased is 4.
<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>
Let us consider the soda bottles as x and juice bottles as y.
From the given data we can derive 2 equations,
35x+15y= 410. .....(1)
x=y+6. ....(2)
Substitute equation (2) in (1),
35(y+6)+15y=410.
35y+ 210+15y=410.
50y+210=410.
50y=410-210.
50y=200.
y=4.
Substitute y value in equation (2),
x=4+6.
x=10.
The number of bottles of soda purchased is 10 and the number of bottles of juice purchased is 4.
After 45 minutes you will have painted 4*45=180 square feet.
so the total number of painted area, y, is:
y=180+x*(3+4) after the 45 minutes
where x is the number of minutes AFTER THE 45 minutes:
if y is 1000 then
1000=180+x*7
820=x*7
x=117.14
so 117 minutes, or one hour and 57 minutes.
I have an expression

floating around in my head; let's see if it makes sense.
The variance of binary valued random variable b that comes up 1 with probability p (so has mean p) is

That's for an individual sample. For the observed average we divide by n, and for the standard deviation we take the square root:

Plugging in the numbers,

One standard deviation of the average is almost 2% so a 27% outcome was 3/1.9 = 1.6 standard deviations from the mean, corresponding to a two sided probability of a bit bigger than 10% of happening by chance.
So this is borderline suspect; most surveys will include a two sigma margin of error, say plus or minus 4 percent here, and the results were within those bounds.
I can't download the picture, you will have to type it out so I can explain it