Quite simply, this equation has no solution, because an absolute value is never negative (like -55 is negative). No solution.
The probability of getting a 2 on the cube is 1/6, because there's 1 two out of the 6 it can land on, and you didn't give us any details on the spinner.
For the answer to the question above,
<span>V(n) = a * b^n, where V(n) shows the value of boat after n years.
V(0) = 3500
V(2) = 2000
n = 0
V(0) = a * b^0 = 3500
a = 3500
V(2) = a * b^2
2000 = 3500 * b^2
b = sqrt (2000/3500)
b ≈ 0.76
V(n) = 3500 * 0.76^n
We can check it for n = 1 which is close to 2500 in the graph:
V(1) = 3500 * (0.76)^1
V(1) = 2660
And in the graph we have V(3) ≈ 1500,
V(n) = 3500 * (0.76)^3 ≈ 1536
Now n = 9.5
V(9.5) = 3500 * (0.76)^(9.5)
V(9.5) ≈ 258</span>
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Total number of marbles = 5 + 2 + 3 = 10
Probability of choosing 1 green marble = 2/10
Probability of choosing 1 yellow marble = 3/10
Notice (and this is important) that the denominator didn't change. Why?
Because you replaced the first marble into the bag. That word replacement is critical in a problem of this nature. There is the term non replacement which means that the second draw would have a denominator of 9.
So what is the probability of P(green then yellow)?
P(green then yellow) = 3/10 * 2/10 = 6/100
Answer: P(green then yellow) = 3/50 because 6 / 100 reduces.
