Answer:
you have the highest chance of getting peanuts
Answer:
(5x+10y)/(x+2y)
Step-by-step explanation:
To check all the events (6), we label the chips. Suppose one chip with 1 is labeled R1 and the other B1 (as if they were red and blue). Now, lets take all combinations; for the first chip, we have 4 choices and for the 2nd chip we have 3 remaining choices. Thus there are 12 combinations. Since we dont care about the order, there are only 6 combinations since for example R1, 3 is the same as 3, R1 for us.
The combinations are: (R1, B1), (R1, 3), (R1, 5), (B1, 3), (B1, 5), (3,5)
We have that in 1 out of the 6 events, Miguel wins 2$ and in five out of the 6 events, he loses one. The expected value of this bet is: 1/6*2+5/6*(-1)=-3/6=-0.5$. In general, the expected value of the bet is the sum of taking the probabilities of the outcome multiplied by the outcome; here, there is a 1/6 probability of getting the same 2 chips and so on. On average, Miguel loses half a dollar every time he plays.
Simplify both sides
2.3=y+7.9
flip the equation.
y+7.9=2.3
Subtract 7.9 from both sides.
y+7.9-7.9=2.3-7.9
y=-5.6
hope this helps!
Answer:
f-1(3)=-2x+6
Step-by-step explanation:
