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shtirl [24]
3 years ago
14

A jar contains 8 red marbles numbered 1 to 8 and 4 blue marbles numbered 1 to 4. A marble is drawn at random from the jar. Find

the probability that the marble is blue or odd-numbered.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Daniel [21]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

66.6%

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that it is blue or odd, would be the quotient between the marbles of these characteristics and the total number of marbles.

Now, we know that there are four blue marbles altogether. The odd ones, in the case of the red ones since there are eight, are the marbles 1,3,5,7 and in the blue ones the odd ones are not counted because they are already included as blue; therefore there are a total of four odd marbles. In total, between odd and blue there are eight marbles.

Which means that the probability is as follows, knowing that there are a total of 12 marbles:

8/12 = 0.666, that is, there is 66.6% chance that the marble that is drawn is blue or an odd number.

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

1. The prime factorization of 12 is 2 x 2 x 3 and the prime factorization of 16 is 2 x 2 x 2 x 2. When you look at these two expressions you can see the common factors of these two numbers are 2 x 2, which is 4. Next, we look at the GCF of the N's which would be n^3 since n^5 has three N's in it. Therefore, we get 4n^3 when we multiply the two together.

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3. Since one of the numbers of the three given here does not include the variable n, there will not be any N's in the GCF of the three, so we don't have to worry about that. Now, we just find the GCF of 18, -24, and -21. The factors of 18 are 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, and 18, the factors of 24 are 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, and 24, and lastly, the factors of 21 are 1, 3, 7, and 21. From these, 3 is the biggest common divisor, therefore the GCF is 3.

4. Between the two X's, X^1 is the biggest amount of X's this GCF has, so the final GCF will be some constant multiplies with X. Since we are dealing with bigger numbers on this problem, we should use prime factorization. The prime factorization of 90 is 2 x 3 x 3 x 5, and the prime factorization of 120 is 2 x 2 x 2 x 3 x 5. From these expressions, we take the biggest amount of each common factor as we can. Since these expressions both have 2, we take the smaller amount of 2's which is one two. Then we get one three from both expressions, and one five as well. 2 times 3 times 5 equals 30, therefore, we get -30x, and not 30x, because both of these numbers are negatives.

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Step-by-step explanation:

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