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Marizza181 [45]
3 years ago
15

Line segment C X is an altitude in triangle ABC. Triangle A B C is shown. Angle A C B is a right angle. An altitude is drawn fro

m point C to point X on side A B to form a right angle. Which statements are true? Select two options. ΔABC Is-congruent-to ΔBXC ΔAXC ~ ΔCXB ΔBCX Is-congruent-to ΔACX ΔACB ~ ΔAXC ΔCXA Is-congruent-to ΔCBA
Mathematics
2 answers:
Alenkinab [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

i. ΔAXC ~ ΔCXB

ii. ΔBCX Is-congruent-to ΔACX

Step-by-step explanation:

From the given ΔABC, CX is the altitude of ΔABC; and also an angle bisector of <ACB.

So that:

m<AXC = m<BXC (right angle property)

m<ACX = m<BCX (congruent property)

m<ACX + m<AXC + m<CAX = 180^{o} (sum of angles in a triangle)

m<BCX + m<BXC + m<CBX = 180^{o} (sum of angles in a triangle)

Therefore, from the figure it can be deduced that;

i. ΔAXC ~ ΔCXB (Angle-Angle-Side, AAS, property)

ii. ΔBCX Is-congruent-to ΔACX (Angle-Angle-Side, AAS, property)

Mila [183]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

ΔAXC ~ ΔCXB

ΔACB ~ ΔAXC

Step-by-step explanation:

B and D are correct

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Gekata [30.6K]

Welcome to Brainly! I'm happy to help!

We see that there are 1,610 meters in a mile. However, we are looking for millimeters, not meters. But, knowing the meters will help us out.

A millimeter is a very small measurement. There are 1,000 millimeters in 1 meter. A meter is much larger. So, if we want to convert 1,610 meters to millimeters, there are going to be way more millimeters because they are so minute.

This means that we will have to multiply. We know that there are 1,000 millimeters in 1 meter, so if we multiply our meters by 1,000 (which is basically just adding 3 zeros), we will get the number of millimeters in one mile!

1,610×1,000=1,610,000 (one million six hundred and ten thousand!)

Don't forget that we are looking for 3 miles though, so we can take the number of millimeters in one mile and multiply by three.

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So, Tobias ran 4,830,000 millimeters!

Have a wonderful day and keep on learning! :D

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Anna [14]
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7 0
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Another i need help bad
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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

-  \frac{1}{2}  +  \frac{1}{3}  =  -  \frac{1}{6}

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xxTIMURxx [149]

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distribute the value of n

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