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KengaRu [80]
4 years ago
9

The collection of money from a group of investors used to buy different investments is a ___

Business
1 answer:
Mashcka [7]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

<em>money market</em> because your money you earned off a investment into another investment

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Mark recently graduated with honors from his college. He has bragged to his friends that his academic performance has prepared h
Montano1993 [528]
Answer C ; over confident. global competition means that continuous learning will be needed in the future to adapt rapid changes. probably right.
8 0
3 years ago
Nivan Co. issued $500,000 of 5 percent, 10-year, callable bonds on January 1, Year 1, at their face value. The call premium was
Sav [38]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

On Jan 1

Cash $500,000

          To Bond Payable  $500,000

(Being the issuance of the bond is recorded)

On Dec 31

Bond Payable $500,000

Loss on redemption $15,000    ($500,000 × 3%)

          To Cash    ($500,000 × 103%)  $515,000

(Being the redemption of the bond is recorded and the remaining balance or we can say balancing figure is debited to loss on redemption)

8 0
3 years ago
You are set to receive an annual payment of $12,100 per year for the next 17 years. Assume the interest rate is 7 percent. How m
uranmaximum [27]

Answer:

The difference in value is worth $8,269 more in money.

Explanation:

Case 1. Payments are made at the end of each year

So here, we will use the annuity formula for computing the present value of payments that we are receiving at the end of each year.

Here

Annual Cash flow is $12,100

Interest Rate "r" is 7%

And

Number of Payments "n" will be 17

Present Value = Cash flow * [1 - 1 / (1+r)^n] / r

By putting values, we have:

Present Value = $12,100 * [1 - 1 / (1 + 7%)^17] / 7%

Present Value = $12,100 * 9.763223

Present Value = $118,135

Now

Cash 2. Payments are arising at the start of each year

Just like the case above, we will use the annuity formula for computing the present value of payments that we are receiving at the start of each year. The first payment will be at worth the same because it is received in today's price.

So

Present Value = Cash flow     +       Cash flow * [1 - 1 / (1+r)^n] / r

So by putting values, that were used in case 1, we have:

Present Value = $12,100 + $12,100 * (1 - (1/1.07)^16) / 0.07

Present Value = $12,100 + $12,100 * 9.446649

Present Value = $126,404

Difference in Present Value = PV of Case 1      -    PV of Case 2

= $126,404 - $118,135 = $8,269

The difference in value is worth $8,269 more in money.

4 0
3 years ago
The december 31, 2015, balance sheet of maria's tennis shop, inc., showed current assets of $1,145 and current liabilities of $9
Vitek1552 [10]

Net working capital is the difference between the Total Current Assets and Total Current Liabilities.

The December 31, 2015, balance sheet of Maria's tennis shop, inc., showed current assets of $1,145 and current liabilities of $935.

Hence, Net working capital as on December 31, 2015 shall be (1145-935) = $210


The December 31, 2016, balance sheet showed current assets of $1,360 and current liabilities of $1,035.

Hence, Net working capital as on December 31, 2016 shall be (1360-1035) = $325


So the change in the net working capital in the year 2016 shall be (325-210)= <u>$115</u>







7 0
4 years ago
Kendra, Cogley, and Mei share income and loss in a 3:2:1 ratio. The partners have decided to liquidate their partnership. On the
BlackZzzverrR [31]

Answer:

a. Inventory is sold for $600,000.

gain on sale of inventory = $600,000 - $537,200 = $62,800

allocation of gain:

Kendra 1/2 x $62,800 = $31,400

Cogley 1/3 x $62,800 = $20,933

Mei 1/6 x $62,800 = $10,467

Dr Cash 600,000

   Cr Inventory 537,200

   Cr Gain on sale of inventory 62,800

Dr Gain on sale of inventory 62,800

   Cr Kendra, capital 31,400

    Cr Cogley, capital 20,933

    Cr Mei, capital 10,467

Dr Accounts payable 245,500

    Cr Cash 245,500

Dr Kendra, capital 124,400

Dr Cogley, capital 233,433

Dr Mei, capital 177,467

    Cr Cash 535,300

b. Inventory is sold for $500,000.

loss on sale of inventory = $500,000 - $537,200 = -$37,200

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $37,200 = $18,600

Cogley 1/3 x $37,200 = $12,400

Mei 1/6 x $37,200 = $6,200

Dr Cash 500,000

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 37,200

   Cr Inventory 537,200

Dr Kendra, capital 18,600

Dr Cogley, capital 12,400

Dr Mei, capital 6,200

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 37,200

Dr Accounts payable 245,500

    Cr Cash 245,500

Dr Kendra, capital 74,400

Dr Cogley, capital 200,100

Dr Mei, capital 160,800

    Cr Cash 435,300

c. Inventory is sold for $320,000 and any partners with capital deficits pay in the amount of their deficits.

loss on sale of inventory = $320,000 - $537,200 = -$217,200

allocation of loss:

Kendra 1/2 x $217,200 = $108,600

Cogley 1/3 x $217,200 = $72,400

Mei 1/6 x $217,200 = $36,200

Dr Cash 320,000

Dr Loss on sale of inventory 217,200

    Cr Inventory 537,200

Dr Kendra, capital 108,600

Dr Cogley, capital 72,400

Dr Mei, capital 36,200

    Dr Loss on sale of inventory 217,200

Dr Cash 15,600

    Cr Kendra, capital 15,600

Dr Accounts payable 245,500

    Cr Cash 245,500

Dr Cogley, capital 140,100

Dr Mei, capital 130,800

    Cr Cash 270,900

6 0
3 years ago
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