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WINSTONCH [101]
4 years ago
15

Manley operates a law practice on the accrual method and calendar year. At the beginning of the year Manley's firm had an allowa

nce for doubtful accounts with a balance of $13,900. At the end of the year, Manley recorded bad debt expense of $21,200 and the balance of doubtful accounts had increased to $19,800. What is Manley's deduction for bad debt expense this year?
Business
1 answer:
svlad2 [7]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

$15,300

Explanation:

Allowance for doubtful account at the beginning of the year $13,900

Less increased in the balance of doubt account $19,800

Balance $5,900

Therefore:

Bad debt at the end of the year $21,200- $5,900 =$15,300

The bad debt expense represents the direct write off of bad accounts ($15,300) in which it also represents an increase in the allowance account which is an estimate of bad accounts to be written off in the future ($5,900). Therefore the increase in the allowance account cannot be deducted.

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if a bank reconciliation included a deposit in transit of $765, the company's journal entry for this reconciling item would incl
Olin [163]

If a bank reconciliation included a deposit in transit of $765 the company's journal entry for this reconciling item would contain nothing because the deposit has already been tracked and recorded. The complete question can be seen in attachment.

Bank reconciliation can be described as the process of comparing data on cash books with the corresponding data on the bank statements. It is a important process for the CFO's office and ensures the accuracy of accounting records. Reconciliation also says the process of matching transactions that have been recorded internally against monthly statements from external sources such as banks to see if there are differences in the records and to correct any discrepancies.

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7 0
1 year ago
What is one reason that more affluent individuals may experience better health?
andrew-mc [135]
They can afford top notch healthcare
3 0
3 years ago
After evaluating Null Company’s manufacturing process, management decides to establish standards of 3 hours of direct labor per
docker41 [41]

Answer:

Direct labor rate variance = (SR - AR) \times AH

October = ($15 - $15.20)  \times 16,250 = - $3,250 Unfavorable

November = ($15 - $15.25)  \times  22,000 = - $5,500 Unfavorable

Direct Labor Efficiency Variance = (SH - AH)  \times  SR

October = (16,800 - 16,250)  \times $15 = 8,250 Favorable

November = (18,000 - 22,000) \times $15 = - $60,000 Unfavorable

Direct Labor Cost Variance = Standard Cost - Actual Cost

October = $252,000 - $247,000 = $5,000 Favorable

November = $270,000 - $335,500 = - $65,500 Unfavorable

Explanation:

Computing variances for each month

Particulars                            October                  November          Equation

Total units produced           5,600 units             6,000 units            (a)

Standard hour per unit           3 hours                   3 hours                (b)

Total standard hour SH          16,800                   18,000              (c) = (a)*(b)

Total standard cost

of labor @ $15 SR per hour  $252,000                $270,000          (d) = (c) * 15

Actual hours used AH           16,250                    22,000                  (e)

Actual cost                            $247,000               $335,500                (f)

Actual Rate per hour AR          $15.20                   $15.25              (g) = (f)/(e)

Using the above information we have

Direct labor rate variance = (SR - AR) \times AH

October = ($15 - $15.20)  \times 16,250 = - $3,250 Unfavorable

November = ($15 - $15.25)  \times  22,000 = - $5,500 Unfavorable

Direct Labor Efficiency Variance = (SH - AH)  \times  SR

October = (16,800 - 16,250)  \times $15 = 8,250 Favorable

November = (18,000 - 22,000) \times $15 = - $60,000 Unfavorable

Direct Labor Cost Variance = Standard Cost - Actual Cost

October = $252,000 - $247,000 = $5,000 Favorable

November = $270,000 - $335,500 = - $65,500 Unfavorable

8 0
4 years ago
Privett Company Accounts payable $ 30,000 Accounts receivable 35,000 Accrued liabilities 7,000 Cash 25,000 Intangible assets 40,
erica [24]

Answer:

$113,000

Explanation:

As we know ,

Working capital = Total current assets - total current liabilities

where,

Total current assets = Accounts receivable + cash + inventory + marketable securities + prepaid expenses

= $35,000 + $25,000 + $72,000 + $36,000 + $2,000

= $170,000

And, the total current liabilities = Accounts payable + accrued liabilities + short term notes payable

=  $30,000 + $7,000 + $20,000

= $57,000

Now put the values to the above formula

So, the value would  be equal  to

=  $170,000 - $57,000

= $113,000

3 0
3 years ago
Western Electric has 31,500 shares of common stock outstanding at a price per share of $78 and a rate of return of 13.05 percent
S_A_V [24]

Answer:

WACC = 11.13%

Explanation:

total market value common stocks = 31,500 x $78 = $2,457,000

total market value of preferred stock = 7,250 x $94.50 = $685,125

total market value of debt = $401,000 x 1.105 = $443,105

total = $3,575,230

Rcs = 13.05%

Rps = $7.70 / $94.50 = 8.15%

Rd = 8.05%

WACC = ($2,457,000/$3,575,230 x 13.05%) + ($685,125/$3,575,230 x 8.15%) + ($443,105/$3,575,230 x 8.05% x 60%) = 8.968% + 1.562% + 0.6% = 11.13%

8 0
3 years ago
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