Answer:
option B
Explanation:
On the off chance that an advantage is being built and is being financed totally with a particular new obtaining. Development costs are spread more than two years The aggregate sum of intrigue cost promoted in the subsequent year is dictated by applying the loan cost on the particular new obtaining to the weighted-normal amassed consumption's for the advantage in both of the years.
The correct answer is option B
weighted-average accumulated expenditures for the asset in 2017 and 2018.
The reduction in Max's demand for hot dogs as his income rises shows that Max's hot dogs are an inferior good.
<h3>What is an inferior good?</h3>
An inferior good is a concept used in economics to describe a product whose demand falls as people's earnings increase. As salaries and the economy improve, people begin to replace these things with more expensive alternatives.
- The demand for an inferior good usually falls as consumer income grows, as opposed to normal goods, which experience the reverse.
Therefore, we can conclude that the reduction in Max's demand for hot dogs as his income rises shows that Max's hot dogs are an inferior good.
Learn more about inferior goods here:
brainly.com/question/6039968
Answer:
The capitalized cost is $ 84,667.20
Explanation:
First of all please note that the cost of $ 75,000 is already the present cost.
The cost of $3200 which occurs every 3 years can be converted into a value using factor A/F for one life cycle.
The capitalized cost then can be calculated as follows
:
CC = $ 75,000 + $ 3200(A/F, 10%, 3 years)/interest
CC = $ 75,000 + $ 3,200(0.3021)/0.1
CC = $ 75,000 + $ 9,667.2
CC = $ 84,667.20
Explanation:
The more gas particles there are within a given area, the greater the air density. Likewise, the greater the air density, the more gas particles there are per unit volume. Therefore, there are more air particles bombarding with a surface. Thus, the air pressure increases as the air density increases and visa versa... I hope this helps you answer your question :)
Answer:
4.95%
Explanation:
For computing the yield to maturity when expressed in real terms, first we have to find out the yield to maturity by applying the RATE formula that is shown in the attachment
Given that,
Present value = $989.40
Future value or Face value = $1,000
PMT = 1,000 × 7% ÷ 2 = $35
NPER = 10 years × 2 = 20 years
The formula is shown below:
= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)
The present value come in negative
So, after solving this, the yield to maturity is 7.15%
Now in real terms, it would be
= 7.15% - 2.2%
= 4.95%
