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Slav-nsk [51]
3 years ago
12

Opunui Corporation has two manufacturing departments--Molding and Finishing. The company used the following data at the beginnin

g of the year to calculate predetermined overhead rates: Molding Finishing Total Estimated total machine-hours (MHs) 4,000 1,000 5,000 Estimated total fixed manufacturing overhead cost $ 19,600 $ 2,400 $ 22,000 Estimated variable manufacturing overhead cost per MH $ 1.10 $ 2.10 During the most recent month, the company started and completed two jobs--Job A and Job M. There were no beginning inventories. Data concerning those two jobs follow: Job A Job M Direct materials $ 13,600 $ 7,500 Direct labor cost $ 20,700 $ 7,400 Molding machine-hours 2,700 1,300 Finishing machine-hours 400 600 Assume that the company uses a plantwide predetermined manufacturing overhead rate based on machine-hours and uses a markup of 40% on manufacturing cost to establish selling prices. The calculated selling price for Job A is closest to: (Round your intermediate calculations to 2 decimal places.)
Business
1 answer:
saveliy_v [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The selling price for Job A is $75,978.00

Explanation:

                                        Molding          Finishing          Totals

Machine hours                 4000                1000             5000

Fixed mnf. overheads      19600               2400           22000

Variable manufacturing  

Overheads per machine hours 1.1                2.1

                                                                <u>   JOB A</u>                  <u>JOB B</u>  

Direct materials                                         13,600                    7500

Direct labour costs                                    20,700                  7400

Molding machines      2700*1.1=              2,970  

Finishing        400*2.1=                               840

Fixed mnf: molding 19600*4000/5000= 15,680

Fixed mnf: finishing   2400*1000/5000= <u>  480     </u>

Total cost    (sum of all the above)            $54,270

Mark up = 40%

Mark up=gross profit (GP)*100/cost

40%= GP*100/54270

40*54270/100= GP

GP= 21,708

Sales= cost + GP  

Sales= 21,708+54,270

Sales= $75,978.00

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Sladkaya [172]

Answer:

The correct answer is A. purchase inventory from vendors

Explanation:

The inventory is a detailed, orderly and valued relationship of the elements that make up the assets of a company or person at a given time. In the past, it was normal for inventories to be carried out by physical means (they were written on paper), but now they are usually kept in databases centrally to an entire company, even if there are companies or small stores that continue doing so with paper.

The inventory is:

  • detailed because the characteristics of each of the elements that make up the heritage are specified.
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3 years ago
Marigold Inc. disposes of an unprofitable segment of its business. The operation of the segment suffered a $192000 loss in the y
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Answer:

The correct option is b. The income from continuing operations is $1141000.

Explanation:

Based on the information given we were told that the tax rate is 30% while the income before income taxes was $1,630,000 which means that the The income from continuing operations is $1141000 calculated as:

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Income from continuing operations=$1,630,000-$489,000

Income from continuing operations=$1,141,000

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3 years ago
Patrick patrone (single, 2 allowances), $925 wages __________ carson leno (married, 4 allowances), $1,195 wages __________ carli
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<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

1) P<u>atrick patrone </u>

Single and 2 allowances =\$ 925-\$ 155.80-\$ 155.80=\$ 613.40

It falls under the category of Over $509 but under $1,631

The amount of income tax that he withholds is $36.70 + 12% of excess over $509

\$ 36.70+12 \%(\$ 613.40-\$ 509)=\$ 36.70+12 \% \text { of } \$ 104.40=\$ 36.70+\$ 12.53=\$ 49.23

The amount to withhold for Federal income tax is $49.23.

2) <u>Carson Leno, married and 4 allowances </u>

= $1,195 - $155.80 - $155.80 - $155.80 - $155.80 = $571.80

The wages falls under the category of Over $444 but under $1,177.

The amount of income tax that he withholds is $0 + 10% of excess over $444.

\$ 0+10 \%(\$ 571.80-\$ 444)=\$ 0+10 \% \text { of } \$ 127.20=\$ 0+\$ 12.72=\$ 12.72

The amount to withhold for Federal income tax is $12.72

3) Carli lintz single, zero allowances and wages is $700.

$700 - $0 = $700 (zero allowance)

The wages falls under the category of Over $509 but under $1631.

The amount of income tax to withhold is $36.70 + 12% of excess over $509

\$ 36.70+12 \%(\$ 700-\$ 509)=\$ 36.70+12 \% \text { of } \$ 191 .=\$ 36.70+\$ 22.92=\$ 59.62

The amount to withhold for Federal income tax is $59.62.

4) Gene hartz. Single, 1 allowance and $2,500 wages.

$2,500 - $155.80 = $2,348.20

The wages fall under the category of Over $1,631 but under $3,315

The amount of income tax to withhold is $171.34 + 22 % of excess of $1,631 \begin{aligned}&\$ 171.34+22 \%(\$ 2348.20-\$ 1631)=\$ 171.34+22 \% \text { of } \$ 717.20 .=\$ 174.34+\$ 157.78=\\&\$ 332.12\end{aligned}The amount for Federal income tax is $332.12

5) Mollie Parmer. Married, 2 allowances and wages is $3,600

\$ 3,600-\$ 155.80-\$ 155.80=\$ 3,288.40

The wages falls under the category of Over $1,177 but under $3,421

The amount of income tax to withhold is $\$ 73.30+12 \%$ of excess over $\$ 1,177$ \begin{aligned}&\$ 73.30+12 \% \text { of }(\$ 3,288.40-\$ 1,177) .=\$ 73.30+12 \% \text { of } \$ 2,111.40 .=\$ 73.30+\$ 253.37=\\&\$ 326.67\end{aligned}The amount for Federal income tax is $326.67.

<u>NOTE :</u> - the withholding allowance is deducted from the wages, the amount of single allowance is $155.80.

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3 years ago
Research suggests that up to ___________ of manufacturing firms are using some form of lean in their business.
lisov135 [29]
<span>Up to ninety percent of businesses are using some type of lean processing. This allows them to maintain productivity with minimal staff and overhead. This has become more important as labor costs continue to rise.</span>
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4 years ago
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tatyana61 [14]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a.  Marpor's value without leverage is

But before that first we have to calculate the required rate of return which is

The Required rate of return = Risk Free rate of return + Beta × market risk premium

= 5% + 1.1 × (15% - 5%)

= 16%

Now without leverage is

= Free cash flows generates ÷ required rate of return

= $16,000,000 ÷ 16%

= $100,000,000

b. And, with the new leverage is

= (Free cash flows with debt ÷ required rate of return) + (Tax rate × increase of debt)

= ($15,000,000 ÷ 0.16) + (0.35 × $40,000,000)

= $93,750,000 + $14,000,000

= $107,750,000

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3 years ago
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