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nignag [31]
3 years ago
15

Anton believes his company's overhead costs are driven (affected) by the number of machine hours because the production process

is heavily automated. During the period, the company produced 3,000 units of Product A requiring a total of 200 machine hours and 2,000 units of Product B requiring a total of 50 machine hours. What allocation rate should be used if the company incurs overhead costs of $10,000?
Business
1 answer:
natali 33 [55]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Allocation rate is $40

Explanation:

The overhead cost allocation rate is the overhead costs incurred divided by the appropriate overhead driver.

The driver is that factor that causes overhead to be incurred.Since the company production process is heavily automated,the driver of overhead is machine hours.

The total machine hours in this regard is 250(200 hours for Product A while it is 50 hours for product B)

Overhead allocation rate=$10,000/250=$40

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Everything else remaining unchanged, an increase in the supply of security a and a decrease in the demand for security b will ca
Elanso [62]
If every thing else remain constant, an increase in the supply of security A and a decrease in the demand for security B will cause the price of security A to FALL and the price of security B to FALL. This is because, when supply increases, price usually falls and when demand decreases, price also fall too.
3 0
3 years ago
Brummitt Corp., is evaluating a new 4-year project. The equipment necessary for the project will cost $2,000,000 and can be sold
sergejj [24]

Answer:

The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is $302,964

Explanation:

In order to calculate the aftertax salvage value of the equipment, first we would need to calculate the Book value of the equipment after 4 years as follows:

Book value of the equipment after 4 years = Purchase price *(1-depreciation rate each year)

= $2,000,000*(1-0.2-0.32-0.192-0.1152)

=$345,600

Loss on sale = $281,000-345,600

= 64600

Tax benefit on loss = $64,600*34% = $21,964

Therefore, After tax salvage value = selling price + tax benefit

= $281,000 + $21,964

=$302,964

The aftertax salvage value of the equipment is $302,964

5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
"helen is a u.s. citizen and cpa, who moved to london, england three years ago to work for a british company. this year, she spe
balu736 [363]

<u>Answer:</u>

<em>Exclusion upto  $103,900. Taxable amount is $6100.</em>

<u>Explanation:</u>

<em>US natives</em>, just as changeless occupants, are required to document ostracize expense forms with the government consistently paying little mind to where they dwell.

Alongside the <em>common assessment</em> form for money, numerous individuals are likewise required to present an arrival revealing resources which are held in ledgers in remote nations. Notwithstanding where you live, you should record <em>expat imposes in the US.</em>

3 0
3 years ago
The following transactions occur for Badger Biking Company during the month of June:
Sladkaya [172]

Answer:

Assets                                                 = Liabilities         + Stockholders' equity

Accounts receivable $31,000(+)                                    Revenue  $31,000(+)

Cash                            $23000 (+)

Accounts receivable $23,000(-)

Bike  equipment        $16,000(+)     notes payable $16,000(+)

Cash                           $3,100(-)                               retained earnings$3,100(-)

Explanation:

The first transaction increases assets (accounts receivable) by $31000 while revenue (stockholders' equity) increased by the same amount

The cash receipt of $23,000 increases asset cash by $23,000 and decreases an asset, accounts receivable by the same amount.

The purchase of an asset by notes payable increases asset, bike equipment by $16,000, while liabilities(notes payable) also increases by $16,000

The payment of utilities for $3,100 decreases asset (cash) by $3,100 while stockholders equity (retained earnings) decreases by same amount.

8 0
4 years ago
Which of the following is NOT included in the calculation of GDP?
viktelen [127]

Answer:

The correct answer is option C.your granny's monthly social security payment

Explanation:

Judging from the formula used in  computing the GDP,option A relates to household consumption as the new textbook is not for resale.

Option B also points to household consumption expenditure,as the cup of coffee is for household usage.

Option C does not have a place in the formula as it is not a payment for a good or service.It is a  payment that cannot be tied to any transaction.Hence,option C is your best bet.

Paying wages means parting with money in return for value-adding services,so it features in the GDP computation.

7 0
3 years ago
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