All categories

3 years ago

78 * 40

Mathematics

2 answers:

kykrilka [37]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

3120

Explanation:

Step 1: 0 multiply by 8 give 0

Step 2: 0 multiply by 7 give 0

Step 3: put the number 0 in the right side

Step 4: 4 multiply by 8 give 32

Step 5: add the number 3 to the answer we are going to get for 4 multiply by 7 which is 28+3=31

Debora [2.8K]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

3120

Step-by-step explanation:

step 1:multiply 8 with 0 and 7 with 0

step 2:add a 0 in the end and multiply 8 with 4 . you get 32. take 2 and carry over 3. multiply 7 with 4. you get 28 . add 3 you get 31. now add. you get 3120

You might be interested in

Is the following number rational or irrational?

Oxana [17]

Your question to that answer is irrational

7 0

3 years ago

What is the domain of the profit function P= 11w+6Z?

iren [92.7K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation: Its C. :)

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

9,600 divided by 10 to the power of 1

DochEvi [55]

Answer:

960

Step-by-step explanation:

9600/10∧1=960

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Let f(x) = x+2/x+6 <br> f^-1(-6) =

GREYUIT [131]

We can explicitly find the inverse. If $f^{-1}(x)$ is the inverse of $f(x)$ , then

$f\left(f^{-1}(x)\right) = \dfrac{f^{-1}(x)+2}{f^{-1}(x)+6} = x$

Solve for the inverse :

$\dfrac{f^{-1}(x) + 2}{f^{-1}(x) + 6} = x$

$\dfrac{f^{-1}(x) + 6 - 4}{f^{-1}(x) + 6} = x$

$1 - \dfrac4{f^{-1}(x) + 6} = x$

$1 - x = \dfrac4{f^{-1}(x) + 6}$

$f^{-1}(x) + 6 = \dfrac4{1-x}$

$\implies f^{-1}(x) = \dfrac4{1-x} - 6$

Then when x = -6, we have

$f^{-1}(-6) = \dfrac4{1-(-6)} - 6 = \dfrac47-6 = \boxed{-\dfrac{38}7}$

Alternatively, we can first solve for x such that $f(x) = -6$ . Then taking the inverse of both sides, $x = f^{-1}(-6)$ . (The difference in this method is that we don't compute the inverse for all x.)