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mars1129 [50]
4 years ago
6

Calculate the EOQ size for the following case. What is the EOQ size and the number of orders placed per year? For your answer, r

ound up the figures up to 0 decimal points. (size/number) The annual demand for the item is 2580 units. It costs $500 to place an order and costs $20 per item to carry it a year without passing it to the customer.
Business
1 answer:
andrey2020 [161]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

EOQ = 359 units

Number of order placed =  7.2 times

Explanation:

<em>The Economic Order Quantity (EOG) is the order size that minimizes the balance of ordering cost and holding cost. At the EOQ, the carrying cost is equal to the ordering cost.</em>

<em>It is computed using he formulae below</em>

EOQ = √ (2× Co× D)/Ch

C0- 500, Ch- 20, D- 2,580

EOQ=  √ (2× 500× 2580)/20

        =359.16

EOQ = 359 units

Number of order place d per year = Annual demand / order size

Number of order placed = 2,580/ 359

                                        = 7.2 times

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Answer:

D) $25,000.

Explanation:

The Accrual Basis of Accounting is the process in which income earned or expenses incurred are recorded at the time the transaction takes place, whether or not the cash has been exchanged.

Net Income is derived by subtracting Expenses from Revenue.

N.B. Prepaid Expenses are Advance Payments towards expenses and are a Balance Sheet Items and will not be recorded under Net Income Calculations until the Expenses are realized.

So, The Net Income can be calculated as follows;

Revenue $60,000

Less: Expenses $35,000

Net Income $25,000

Hence Option D will be correct answer.

#NETINCOME

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5 0
3 years ago
g You will be receiving cash flows of: $2,000 today, $3,000 at end of year 1, $5,000 at end of year 3, and $7,000 at end of year
enot [183]

Answer:

The present value of the cashflows will be $12830.30

Explanation:

The present value of the cashflows can be calculated by dividing the cash flows by the appropriate discount rate and for the appropriate time period.

The present value of the given cash flows will be,

Present Value = CF1 / (1+r) + CF2 / (1+r)^2 + .... + CFn / (1+r)^n

As the first payment is received today, it will already be in the present value so it will not be discounted.

Present value = 2000 + 3000 /  (1+0.1) + 5000 / (1+0.1)^3 + 7000 / (1+0.1)^5

Present value = $12830.295 rounded off to $12830.30

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The preemptive right is important to shareholders because it a. allows managers to buy additional shares below the current marke
love history [14]

Answer:

C. protects the current shareholders against a dilution of their ownership interests.

Explanation:

Preemptive rights are rights given to shareholders in an organization allowing them to buy additional shares in any future issue in order to maintain their percentage ownership, before the shares are available to the general public. It guards against dilution or decrease in a shareholders stake or ownership interest buy allowing them buy more shares for future issues before it is available for the general public to own shares. In doing so, shareholders avoid involuntary dilution.

6 0
3 years ago
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A financial adviser has just given you the following​ advice: "Long-term bonds are a great investment because their interest rat
Nikolay [14]

Answer:

No

Explanation:

Long term bonds might not be great investments if the interest rate fall  or even slide into negative value in the future. This means that the bond will become insignificant in value.  

Cheers

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Margarite's Enterprises is considering a new project that will require $345,000 for new fixed assets, $160,000 for inventory, an
atroni [7]

Answer:

NPV = (53,222.44)

Explanation:

Net fixed asset                              345,000

Working capital

160,000 inventory + 35,000 Ar =   195,000

short term deb                                 (110,000)

net working capital                           85,000

Total investment                            430,000

salvage value 345,00 x 25% = 86,250

release of the working capital  85,000

Cash flow at end of project      171,250

annual cash flow

sales             550,000

cost              (430,000)

depreciation    69,000

EBT                   51,000

tax expense 35%

                        (17,850)

net income       33,150

+ dep                 69,000

cash flow           102,150

Now we calculate the present value of the net cash flow and the present alue fothe end of the project

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 102150

time 4

rate 0.15

102150 \times \frac{1-(1+0.15)^{-4} }{0.15} = PV\\

PV $291,636.04

\frac{Principal}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Principla (sum of salvage and released Working capital   171,250.00

time   5.00

rate   0.15

\frac{171250}{(1 + 0.15)^{5} } = PV  

PV   85,141.52

NPV = 291,636.04 + 85,141.52 - 430,000 = (53,222.44)

6 0
3 years ago
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