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Aleks04 [339]
3 years ago
15

What is the product of (3a+2)(16a-2a+9)​

Mathematics
1 answer:
-BARSIC- [3]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

42a^2 + 55a + 18

Step-by-step explanation:

The product is a factorization. I multipled like terms togethers to recieve the answer. I hope this helps you. Please mark brainliest if it is correct, thanks.

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Find the work done by gas?
salantis [7]

The work done by the gas when the gas expands will be 567.65 ft-lb.

<h3>What is the work done for an isothermal process?</h3>

The Pressure is inversely proportional to the volume.

Let the initial pressure and initial volume be P₁ and V₁, and the final volume be V₂.

Then the work done by the gas will be

WD = P₁ V₁ ln (V₂ / V₁)

A quantity of the gas with an initial volume of 2 cubic feet and an initial pressure of 700 pounds per square foot.

The gas expands to a volume of 3 cubic feet.

Then the work done by the gas will be

WD = 700 x 2 x ln (3/2)

WD = 1400 x 0.405

WD = 567.65 ft-lb

The work done by the gas when the gas expands will be 567.65 ft-lb.

More about the work done for isothermal process link is given below.

brainly.com/question/4218306

#SPJ1

7 0
1 year ago
Graph the line with the equation y=-2x + 6.
motikmotik

Answer:

can you show a link to the graph

Step-by-step explanation:

it will help me answer

8 0
3 years ago
Please help and tell me how to do this, please 24 pts
GREYUIT [131]

Step 1: Find common denominators

LCM of 2 and 4 = 4

2 3/4 - 1 2/4

Step 2: Subtract

2 - 1 = 1

3/4 - 2/4 = 1/4

Answer: 1 1/4

Hope this helps!! :)

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
DP
irinina [24]

The probability of drawing a two and another 2 is 1/72

<h3>What is probability?</h3>

Probability is the likelihood or chance that an event will occur

  • Since the total number in the board game is 9, hence the probability of drawing a 2 will be 1/9

  • The probability of drawing the second 2 will be 1/8

  • Pr(drawing a 2, then drawing another 2) = 1/9 * 1/8

Pr(drawing a 2, then drawing another 2) = 1/72

Hence the probability of drawing a two and another 2 is 1/72

learn more on probability here: brainly.com/question/24756209

4 0
1 year ago
HELP QUICKKKKKK PLEASEEE
Misha Larkins [42]
The answer is d because it 0 has more than one outcome and 0 needs to only have one outcome for it to be a function
8 0
2 years ago
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