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trapecia [35]
3 years ago
14

to have ____ advantage means to be able to produce more using the same resources. To have _____ advantage means to have a lower

______. Comparative advantage is the basis for ______. It is _____ for one producer to have a comparative advantage for every good
Business
1 answer:
Anestetic [448]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Absolute, Comparative, Opportunity cost, Gains of trade, Not possible

Explanation:

The terms that will be filled in these blanks are economic terms that are used often in the business. The completed sentences have been written below -

  • To have absolute advantage means to be able to produce more using the same resources.
  • To have comparative advantage means to have a lower opportunity cost.
  • Comparative advantage is the basis for gains of trade.
  • It is not possible for one producer to have a comparative advantage for every good.
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Hart Technology must accrue a loss contingency. The amount of the loss can be reasonably estimated within a range of outcomes. O
Shtirlitz [24]

The amount of loss that should be recognized is the <u>minimum amount </u><u>of the </u><u>range. </u>

<u />

<h3>Recording a Contingent liability </h3>
  • It should only be recorded if the loss is probable and the amount to be incurred as liability can be reasonably estimated.
  • If neither of the above are possible, the loss would be recorded as a footnote.

US GAAP rules state however that if the loss is probable and the amount is in a range, the amount to be recorded as a contingent liability should be the minimum of the range.

In conclusion, they should recognize the minimum amount.

Find out more on contingent liabilities at brainly.com/question/17371330.

3 0
2 years ago
Select the correct answer from each drop-down menu.
ZanzabumX [31]

Nepal is multi media is co on of this

5 0
1 year ago
A book on how to invest in collectibles spends several weeks on best seller lists. The paperback book was originally released fo
miskamm [114]

Answer:

inelastic demand

Explanation:

Price elasticity of demand (PED) measures the proportional change in quantity demanded when the price of a product or service changes:

  • when a 1% decrease in price, increases quantity demanded in a smaller proportion, the PED is said to be inelastic.
  • when a 1% decrease in price, increases quantity demanded in a larger proportion, the PED is said to be elastic.
  • when a 1% decrease in price, increases quantity demanded in the same proportion, the PED is said to be unit elastic.

In this case, the decrease in price (-2%) barely increased the quantity demanded, therefore, the PED is inelastic.

4 0
3 years ago
A company uses the finite replenishment model to determine the optimal quantity to produce. There are days a year over which dem
SVEN [57.7K]

Answer:

16.1 days

Explanation:

Note: The full question is attached as picture below

Daily demand d = 520

Annual demand D = 520*250 = 130000

Setup cost S = $680

Production rate p = 875

Holding cost H = 0.25*25 = 6.25

Optimal order quantity Q

Q = \sqrt{2DS/H} \sqrt{p / p -d}

Q = \sqrt{(2*130000*680)/6.25}   \sqrt{875/875-520}

Q = 8350

Length of production run = Q/d

Length of production run = 8350/520

Length of production run = 16.05769230769231

Length of production run = 16.1 days

8 0
2 years ago
Neosho Corporation's Gauge Division manufactures and sells product no. 24, which is used in refrigeration systems. Per-unit vari
tester [92]

Answer:

(a) Refrigeration would be willing to pay a maximum of Rate 36 to gauge division for unit. because its outside purchase price.  (b) $30  (c) $40  (d) $35

Explanation:

Solution

Given that:

(A)  The Refrigeration would be willing to pay a maximum of Rate 36 to gauge division for unit. because its outside purchase price.

(B) If Gauge had excess capacity, The Division's Management set the transfer price would be $30. this is because transfer price be set as sum of Total Outlay cost and Opportunity Cost. So, ($23 + $7) + $0 = $30

(C) iF Gauge had no excess capacity, the transfer price would be $40.

The Calculation of Transfer price is as follows:

($23 + $7) = $30

Add :- ($40 - $23 -$7) = $10

Hence, the transfer Price = $40

(D) If Gauge was able to reduce the variable cost of internal transfers b $5 per unit then Transfer Price Would be $35.

Thus,

The calculation of transfer price is as follows:-

($23 + $7 - $5) = $25

Add :- ($40 - $23 -$7) = $10

The transfer Price = $35

7 0
3 years ago
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