PPP is a method of comparing the absolute purchasing power of currencies and, to some extent, the living standards of people in different countries.
<h3 /><h3>What is purchasing power parity?</h3>
Purchasing power parity (PPP) is a method of comparing the absolute purchasing power of currencies and, to some extent, the living standards of people in different countries.
It uses the prices of specific goods to compare the absolute purchasing power of currencies and, to some extent, the living standards of their people.
Therefore the above statement explains the purchasing power parity.
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Answer:
B $4.90
Explanation:
The earnings per share ratio (EPS), is an entities net income after tax that is available the shareholders divided by the weighted average number of shares of common stock that are outstanding during the period of the earnings.
As such, given;
net income after tax = $490,000
number of shares = 100,000
EPS = net income after tax/number of shares
= $490,000/100,000
= $4.90
Answer:
Mark will have at the end of six years the amount of $25,865.74
Explanation:
According to the given data we have the following:
First investment = 2500
Investment increasing at rate of 10%
Interest rate = 13%
t=6 years
Present value is given by formula = C * [((1+g)^n/(1+i)^n) - 1 ] / (g-i)
C is first value = 2,500
g is increase in investment = 0.10
i is intrest rate = 0.13
n is no of years = 6
Putting values into the equation
P = 2500* [((1+ 0.10)^6/(1+0.13)^6) - 1 ] / (0.10-0.13) 1.771561 2.08195
P = 2500* [((1.10)^6/(1.13)^6) - 1 ] / (-0.03)
P = 2500* [0.8509142870866 - 1 ] / (-0.03)
P = 2500* (-0.14908571)/ (-0.03)
P = 2500* 4.9695236
P=$12,423.809
Future value = P*(1+i)^t
= $12,423.809 *(1+0.13)^6
= $25,865.74
Mark will have at the end of six years the amount of $25,865.74
is a discount that buyers can receive in exchange
Answer:
A. The seller would be primarily liable.
Explanation:
Subject to basis is a form of home buying options in real estate. It is a situation where the buyer takes over existing loan of a seller and make commitment to seller to continue repaying the loan to the lender.
Though the buyer will taken over the loan from the seller and make repayment to the lender, there is no legal obligation on buyer`s part that makes him/her liable to the lender. The seller still remain liable despite the the taking over. So option A is right while B to D is wrong because it`s only the seller that is primarily liable to the lender.
