The reason for a bimodel distribution is that a bimodal distribution may occasionally result from merging data from two processes or populations.
<h3>What is a bimodel distribution?</h3>
- Two modes comprise a bimodal distribution. In other words, the results of two distinct processes are integrated into a single collection of data.
- The distribution sometimes goes by the name "double-peaked." Consider the distribution of production data over two shifts in a manufacturing facility.
- Bimodal distributions frequently happen as a result of underlying events.
- A bimodal distribution, for instance, can be seen in the amount of patrons who visit a restaurant each hour because people typically eat out for lunch and dinner.
- The bimodal distribution is brought on by the underlying human behavior.
- If a data set has two modes, it is bimodal. This indicates that no particular data value has the highest frequency of occurrence. Instead, the highest frequency is tied between two data values.
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Answer: the intentions of the parties is inferred from their conduct by the court as well as the circumstances of the contract
Explanation:
An implied contract is referred to as an agreement that's legally-binding which was created due to the actions, or circumstances of the parties that were involved.
In an implied contract, the parties typically possess no written contract, but an obligation is created by the law based on the conduct of the parties involved.
The bond payments are more predictable than stocks because bond owners know the size and timing of payments they will receive.
Bonds refers to the promise by a borrower to pay the lender his/her principal and the interest on the loan given.
- Bonds is an instrument used by company as an alternatives to taking a loan from banks.
- Generally, the bond payments are more predictable than stocks because bond owners know the size and timing of payments they will receive.
Therefore, the Option C is correct.
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Answer:
23.68%
Explanation:
The computation of the cost of not taking a cash discount is shown below:-
Cost of not taking a cash discount = [Discount percentage ÷ (100% - Disc.%)] × (360 ÷ (Final due date - Discount period))
= (2% ÷ 98%) × (360 ÷ (50 - 19))
= 2.04% × 11.61
= 23.68%
Therefore for computing the cost of not taking a cash discount we simply applied the above formula.
Answer:
Total increase in pretax earnings on Summer’s December 31, 2019, income statement is $20,253
Explanation:
Fair value of asset sold on lease = Present value of lease payments = $50,000 * Cumulative PV factor at 6% for 8 periods of annuity due
= $50,000 * 6.20979
= $310,490
Interest income for 2019 = ($310490 - $50,000) * 6% = $15,629
Total increase in pretax earnings on Summer’s December 31, 2019, income statement = $310490 - $300,000 + $15,629 - 5866 = $20,253