After the 10% discount on marked price (P), the selling price is ...
... P×(100% -10%) = 0.90P
After a markup off 35% on cost, the value is
... $70×(100% +35%) = 1.35×$70 = $94.50
The retailer wants these two values to be equal:
... 0.90P = $94.50
... P = $94.50/0.90 = $105.00 . . . . . divide by the coefficient of P
The marked price should be $105.00.
First let us convert 0.01 into fraction:
Now we convert 100 and 4 into perfect squares as follows:
Now we use the property of :
The probability that her first treat is jelly is 4/20. Since she eats the candy and does not replace it, the probability the second treat is jelly would be 3/19 (1 less jelly and 1 less total candies). You would then multiply (4/20) by (3/19). That is your answer.
Answer:
32
Step-by-step explanation:
take 128 divide by 4
