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goblinko [34]
3 years ago
11

This is a 2 part question.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ierofanga [76]3 years ago
8 0
The answer would be “B”
irina [24]3 years ago
4 0
B
just for extra space
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Use the properties and mental math to find the sum 8 1/5 + 3 2/5 + 5 4/5
Amanda [17]

Answer:

The answer is 17 2/5

Step-by-step explanation:

To find this, first add all the fractions together.

1/5 + 2/5 + 4/5 = 1 2/5

Now add all the whole numbers together.

8 + 3 + 5 = 16

Now add the two together.

16 + 1 2/5 = 17 2/5

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Organisers for a charity event sold 500 tickets. Adult price £3 and children £2. Money received from adult ticket sales is £400
Tatiana [17]

Answer: 280

<u>Step-by-step explanation:</u>

                  Quantity   X    Cost    =  Money Received

Adult:               x                   3                   3x          

Children:       500-x              2            2(500 - x) = 1000 - 2x


Adult = Children + 400

  3x   =  1000 - 2x + 400

  3x   =   1400 - 2x

  5x   =   1400

    x    =    280

7 0
3 years ago
How could you convert a rate of 18,000 mph to miles per second
Dmitrij [34]
Hi there,

(18000 miles / 1 hour)(1 hour / 60 minutes)(1 minute / 60 seconds) adds up to <span>18000 miles / 3600 seconds, which then adds up to </span><span>5 miles / 1 second...
</span>
you should get a total of 5 miles per second

I hope I helped :)
6 0
3 years ago
Compute the probability of randomly selecting an eight or jack
Anit [1.1K]

Answer:

2/13

Step-by-step explanation:

In a regular deck of cards, there are a total of 52 cards. Of these, there are 4 8's and 4 jacks, making a total of 8 "desirable" outcomes. Therefore, the probability is 8/52=2/13. Hope this helps!

6 0
3 years ago
The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
rjkz [21]

Answer:

a)  0.2725

b)  0.7275

c)  0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial distribution probability problem. The formula is:

P(x)=\frac{n!}{(n-x)!x!}p^{x}q^{n-x}

Where

n is the number of trials [here we are taking 8 person, so n = 8]

x is what we are looking for [in the problem]

p is the probability of success [ 15%, so p = 0.15

q is the probability of failure [q = 1-p = 0.85]

Now,

a)

We are looking for "no one" did fling, so x = 0

Let's put into formula and find out the probability:

P(x=0)=\frac{8!}{(8-0)!0!}(0.15)^{0}(0.85)^{8}\\P(x=0)=0.2725

So, the probability that no one has done a one-time fling is 0.2725

b)

Atleast 1 person means P(x ≥ 1).

This can be found by:

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x=0) = 1 - 0.2725 = 0.7275

THus, Probability that at least one person has done a one-time fling is 0.7275

c)

No more than 2 people means P (x≤2).

This is essentially

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2)

P ( x = 0 ) is found in part (a), which is 0.2725

P (x = 1 ) and P(x=2) can be found using formula:

P(x=1)=\frac{8!}{(8-1)!1!}(0.15)^{1}(0.85)^{7}\\P(x=1)=0.3847

and

P(x=2)=\frac{8!}{(8-2)!2!}(0.15)^{2}(0.85)^{6}\\P(x=2)=0.2376

Thus,

P ( x ≤ 2 ) = P(x=0) + P(x=1) + P(x=2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376 = 0.8948

8 0
3 years ago
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