The operating working capital that Alfred is going to have at the end of the day would be $12500.
<h3>How to solve for the working capital</h3>
The formula for the working capital = current assets - current liabilities
Current assets = $12500
current liabilities = 0
This is because, by the 10th day, he is supposed to have paid account payable.
The  working capital would be = $12500 -0
= $12500
Read more on capital here: brainly.com/question/26214959
#SPJ1
 
        
             
        
        
        
If a policy change causes a Pareto improvement, is the outcome necessarily Pareto efficient if a policy change causes a Pareto improvement, then the outcome is not necessarily Pareto efficient this is because another change in the policy could cause another Pareto improvement.
A Pareto development is a development of a device whilst an alternative in the allocation of goods harms no person and advantages as a minimum one character. Pareto enhancements also are called "no-brainers" and are generally predicted to be rare, due to the plain and effective incentive to make any available Pareto development.
Factors that lie within the PPF display an inefficient or below-usage of resources – this is Pareto inefficient. A Pareto development way that output of both products can increase as we move from inside the PPF to factors at the PPF boundary.
Learn more about Pareto  here:
brainly.com/question/7304310
#SPJ4
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
The proportion of people in your sample whose response is yes=40 people
Explanation:
<em>Step 1: Determine the statistical proportion that will say yes</em>
Proportion=40%=40/100=0.4
<em>Step 2: Determine the proportion in the sample that will say yes</em>
The proportion in the sample can be expressed as;
P=S×Z
where;
P=proportion in the sample
S=statistical proportion
Z=sample size
In our case;
P=unknown to be determined
S=40%=40/100=0.4
Z=100
replacing;
Proportion in the sample=0.4×100=40
The proportion of people in your sample whose response is yes=40 people
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
 11.68%
Explanation:
In this question, we apply the Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) formula which is shown below
Expected rate of return = Risk-free rate of return + Beta × (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)
= 4.4% + 1.3 × (10% - 4.4%)
= 4.4% + 1.3 × 5.6%
= 4.4% + 7.28%
= 11.68%
The (Market rate of return - Risk-free rate of return)  is also called market risk premium
 
        
             
        
        
        
Answer:
 5.32%
Explanation:
The computation of the coupon rate on the bonds is shown below:
As we know that 
Current price = Annual coupon × Present value of annuity factor(6.1%,8 ) + $1,000 × Present value of discounting factor(6.1%,8)
$952 = Annual coupon × 6.18529143 + $1,000 × 0.622697222
Annual coupon is 
= ($952 - 622.697222) ÷ 6.18529143
= $53.24
Now 
Coupon rate is 
= Annual coupon ÷ Face value
= $53.24 ÷ $1,000
= 5.32%
Working notes:
1. Present value of annuity is 
= Annuity × [1 - (1 + interest rate)^-time period] ÷ rate
= Annual coupon × [1 - (1.061)^-8] ÷ 0.061
= Annual coupon × 6.18529143
And, 
2.Present value of discounting factor is 
= $1,000 ÷ 1.061^8
= $1000 × 0.622697222