Since the steps are the same size, and she ended up where she started, she must have taken the same number of steps forward as she took backward.
16/2 = 8
She took 8 steps forward and 8 steps backward.
Easiest way is to find out first how many she runs in a week. For that you can multiply the number of hours she runs a weekday by 5. (3.2*5) That should be 16. Now, since you want to know how many miles she will run in a span of 6 weeks you must multiply it by 6 now. That is 96. Since you know that, let's move on to the weekends. It is 1.5 per weekend day or 3 per weekend. Now you have to multiply 3 by 6 because you want to know for six weeks. Since you have both your numbers now, 18 and 96, you can add them to make a final of 114.
Answer:
He got an 80 percent.
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Rn(x) →0
f(x) = 10/x
a = -2
Taylor series for the function <em>f </em>at the number a is:
............ equation (1)
Now we will find the function <em>f </em> and all derivatives of the function <em>f</em> at a = -2
f(x) = 10/x f(-2) = 10/-2
f'(x) = -10/x² f'(-2) = -10/(-2)²
f"(x) = -10.2/x³ f"(-2) = -10.2/(-2)³
f"'(x) = -10.2.3/x⁴ f'"(-2) = -10.2.3/(-2)⁴
f""(x) = -10.2.3.4/x⁵ f""(-2) = -10.2.3.4/(-2)⁵
∴ The Taylor series for the function <em>f</em> at a = -4 means that we substitute the value of each function into equation (1)
So, we get 
Or
137hahahahacan this be a free.
