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Dmitrij [34]
2 years ago
14

The postmaster of a small western town receives a certain number of complaints each day about mail delivery. DAY 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

9 10 11 12 13 14 Number of complaints 4 10 14 8 9 6 5 12 13 7 6 4 2 10 a. Determine three-sigma control limits using the above data. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Round your final answers to 3 decimal places. Leave no cells blank - be certain to enter "0" wherever required. Round up any negative control limit value to zero.) UCL LCL b. Is the process in control

Business
1 answer:
kari74 [83]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The mean of the data is: 7.857

b) Yes the process is in control since all values in data set lie between the UCL and LCL.

Explanation:

Find attached the solution

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Cindy invests $10000 in an account that pays an annual rate of 3.96%, compounding semi-annually. approximately how much does she
stiks02 [169]

Annual Compound Formula is:

A = P( 1 + r/n) ^nt

Where:

A is the future value of the investment

P is the principal investment

r is the annual interest rate

<span>n is the number of  interest compounded per year</span>

t is the number of years the money is invested


So for the given problem:

P = $10,000

r = 0.0396

n = 2 since it is semi-annual

t = 2 years

 

Solution:

A = P( 1 + r/n) ^nt

A = $10,000 ( 1 + 0.0396/2) ^ (2)(2)

A = $10000 (1.00815834432633616)

A = $10,815.83 is the amount after two years

6 0
2 years ago
You have developed the following data on three stocks: Stock A has a standard deviation of .15 and a Beta of .79. Stock B has a
blondinia [14]

Answer:

As a risk minimizer : Stock A  has the lowest standard deviation, thus, it should be chosen, if it is to be held in isolation . Also stock B  has the lowest beta, thus,it should be chosen, if it is to be held as part of a well - diversified portfolio.

The answer is A and B respectively

Explanation:

The standalone risk or standard deviation of the stocks is alleviated for a well diversified investor  . So, in that case, the relevant risk would be the market risk or the beta.

When you see in isolation, relevant risk would be the standard deviation.

Therefore, as a risk minimizer : Stock A  has the lowest standard deviation, thus, it should be chosen, if it is to be held in isolation . Also stock B  has the lowest beta, thus,it should be chosen, if it is to be held as part of a well - diversified portfolio.

6 0
3 years ago
On December 31, 2020, Berclair Inc. had 600 million shares of common stock and 7 million shares of 9%, $100 par value cumulative
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

The diluted EPS is $1.65

Explanation:

Solution

The Numerator (Basic EPS):

The Net income = $1,050 million

The Preferred dividends= 3mn * 9% * $ 100 = $ 27 million

because the preferred stock is cumulative, the dividend is deducted whether or not paid)

The Denominator (Basic EPS): Weighted average Number of shares

Now,

common stock outstanding (1/1 – 12/31)  600 million x (12/12) *1.05  = 630 million

The Treasury shares purchased (3/1 – 12/31)  (24) million x (10/12) *1.05  =(21) million

The  shares  treasury sold  (10/1 – 12/31)  (4) million x (3/12)  =1

The average  weighted number of shares  =610 million

so,

Basic EPS = ($1,050-27) ÷ 610 = $1.68

Stock Options

The stock choice are dilutive because exercise price is lesser than market price of $ 70 per share.

By applying the treasury stock method.

Exercise is supposed to take place at the later of the date of issue (9/13/21) or the beginning of the year (1/1/21). Assume exercise 1/1/21

The Treasury Stock Method suggests that the proceeds received upon exercise of $1,680 (30 million x $56) are used to purchase back stock at the market price average, for example  $1,680 ÷ $70 = 24 million

The net goes higher in the number of shares = 6 million  (30 million issued upon exercise – 24 million repurchased)

Convertible Bonds

By applying method if bonds are transformed into common stock.  however,a step by step approach to calculate nature of dilution. is determined

Now,

The shares issued on conversion = 6 million

The Interest paid, net of tax = $3 [(8% x $50) x 75%]

The Interest per shares issued = 3/6 = $ 0.5 per share

The EPS without assumed conversion = ($1,050 - $27+3) ÷ (610 + 6+6) = $1.65

The convertible bonds are dilutive because $1.65 is less than $1.68

Therefore, diluted EPS = ($1,050 - $27+3) ÷ (610 + 6+6) = $1.65

4 0
3 years ago
Item
vodka [1.7K]

What Muhammad found unsatisfactory about the Certificate of deposit is that the return on the investment was too low.

Basically, a certificate of deposit is under a Short term investment instrument which yields low interest value for investors.

The Short term investment yields on investment are low because it is for short period of time and involves lesser risks. Other instruments under Short term investment includes Money market etc.

Therefore, the option C is correct because the Certificate of deposit was seen as unsatisfactory by Muhammad because the return on the investment was too low.

Learn more about this here

<em>brainly.com/question/6564414</em>

7 0
2 years ago
Cash paid to retire notes $ 112​ Common shares acquired for treasury 172​ Proceeds from issuance of preferred stock 254​ Proceed
arsen [322]

Answer:

$176 million

Explanation:

The calculation of net cash inflows from financing activities is shown below:-

Net cash inflows from financing activities

Proceeds from issuance of preferred stock $254 million

Proceeds from issuance of subordinated  bonds $292 million

Less: Cash dividends paid on preferred stock (86) million

Less: Cash paid to retire note ($112) million

Less: Common shares acquired for treasury (172) million

Net cash inflows from financing activities $176 million

The positive sign represents the cash inflow and the negative sign represents the cash outflow

6 0
3 years ago
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