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artcher [175]
3 years ago
7

What is simple interest rate if p=$4000,t=2years,and I=$320

Mathematics
2 answers:
kakasveta [241]3 years ago
7 0
Divide 4000 by 100 to get 40, then mutiply it by 8 to get 320. 8% is the interest rate for 2 years, then divide the 8 by 2 to get it for one year 8/2=4. So the answer is 4% simple interest rate for one year. Hope this helped.
PolarNik [594]3 years ago
6 0
I=PRT
R=percetnt in decimal form
x%=x/100

I=320
T=2
P=4000
320=(4000)(x/100)(2)
320=8000(x/100)
320=80x
divide both sides by 80
4=x
answer is 4%
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I need help with this please!!!
Andru [333]

Answer:

U = \frac{TE}{3}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

T = \frac{3U}{E}

Multiply both sides by E to clear the fraction

TE = 3U ( divide both sides by 3 )

\frac{TE}{3} = U

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3 years ago
3. Let A, B, C be sets and let ????: ???? → ???? and ????: ???? → ????be two functions. Prove or find a counterexample to each o
Fiesta28 [93]

Answer / Explanation

The question is incomplete. It can be found in search engines. However, kindly find the complete question below.

Question

(1) Give an example of functions f : A −→ B and g : B −→ C such that g ◦ f is injective but g is not  injective.

(2) Suppose that f : A −→ B and g : B −→ C are functions and that g ◦ f is surjective. Is it true  that f must be surjective? Is it true that g must be surjective? Justify your answers with either a  counterexample or a proof

Answer

(1) There are lots of correct answers. You can set A = {1}, B = {2, 3} and C = {4}. Then define f : A −→ B by f(1) = 2 and g : B −→ C by g(2) = 4 and g(3) = 4. Then g is not  injective (since both 2, 3 7→ 4) but g ◦ f is injective.  Here’s another correct answer using more familiar functions.

Let f : R≥0 −→ R be given by f(x) = √

x. Let g : R −→ R be given by g(x) = x , 2  . Then g is not  injective (since g(1) = g(−1)) but g ◦ f : R≥0 −→ R is injective since it sends x 7→ x.

NOTE: Lots of groups did some variant of the second example. I took off points if they didn’t  specify the domain and codomain though. Note that the codomain of f must equal the domain of

g for g ◦ f to make sense.

(2) Answer

Solution: There are two questions in this problem.

Must f be surjective? The answer is no. Indeed, let A = {1}, B = {2, 3} and C = {4}.  Then define f : A −→ B by f(1) = 2 and g : B −→ C by g(2) = 4 and g(3) = 4. We see that  g ◦ f : {1} −→ {4} is surjective (since 1 7→ 4) but f is certainly not surjective.  Must g be surjective? The answer is yes, here’s the proof. Suppose that c ∈ C is arbitrary (we  must find b ∈ B so that g(b) = c, at which point we will be done). Since g ◦ f is surjective, for the  c we have already fixed, there exists some a ∈ A such that c = (g ◦ f)(a) = g(f(a)). Let b := f(a).

Then g(b) = g(f(a)) = c and we have found our desired b.  Remark: It is good to compare the answer to this problem to the answer to the two problems

on the previous page.  The part of this problem most groups had the most issue with was the second. Everyone should  be comfortable with carefully proving a function is surjective by the time we get to the midterm.

3 0
3 years ago
jillian is trying to save water so she reuces the size of her square grass lawn by 8 ft on each side the area of the smaller law
dusya [7]
(x - 8)^2 = 144
take the sq rt of both sides
x - 8 = 12
x = 12 + 8
x = 20

20 feet by 20 feet
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the value of x in the equation x + 24. 5 =34. 8
ser-zykov [4K]

Answer:

x = 10.3

Step-by-step explanation:

x + 24. 5 = 34.8

  - 24.5   - 24.5

x = 10.3

Check your answer:

x + 24. 5 = 34.8

10.3 + 24.5 = 34.8

34.8 = 34.8

Hope this helps!

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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