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Semmy [17]
3 years ago
9

Which graph represents the solution set of this inequality? 9−4d≥−3

Mathematics
2 answers:
SIZIF [17.4K]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: a

Step-by-step explanation:

Svetradugi [14.3K]3 years ago
3 0
<h2>Answer:</h2>

<u>The graph will look like a closed dot on 3 with an arrow going to the left.</u>

<h2><u></u></h2>

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Please help ill give brainliest answer!
LenKa [72]

Answer:

OC=48

RK=100

Step-by-step explanation:

We can use proportions to find both OC and RK.

\frac{OK}{KY} =\frac{OC}{RY}

\frac{12}{24} =\frac{OC}{96}

24OC=1152

OC=48

\frac{KC}{RK} =\frac{OK}{KY}

\frac{50}{RK} =\frac{12}{24}

12RK=1200

RK=100

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help the answers are <br><br><br> A) A<br> B) B<br> C) D<br> D) E
ipn [44]

Answer:

the answer po is letter c

Step-by-step explanation:

Tinatamad akong mag explain basta tama 'yan

7 0
3 years ago
PLEASEEE HELP ASAPPPP . When solving using Elimination:
Komok [63]
Y because if you add them you will get 10x =-10
The y will be eliminated because you have positive 3 -4
6 0
3 years ago
Please help?? its unit rate so plz help tell me how to do it
Lelechka [254]

Answer:

1.2 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

You have to divide the dollar count by the pound count.

So basically:

6/5

This gives you 1.2 dollars.

When you do unit rate, you just have to divide one value by the other value.

The value you divide by, and the value you divde, vary depending on what the question asks.

For instance, if this question asked what the pound count for 1 dollar would be, you would end up divide the 5 pounds by 6 dollars(5/6) instead of divideing the 6  dollars by 5 pounds like we did above(6/5).

Hope this helps!

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In a lottery game, a player picks six numbers from 1 to 27. If the player matches all six numbers, they win 40,000 dollars. Othe
Alexus [3.1K]

Answer:

We conclude that  expected value of this game is -0.865$.

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that in a lottery game, a player picks six numbers from 1 to 27.

We know that

C_6^{27}=296010

As there is only one advantageous combination, we conclude that the number of non-winning combinations is 296009.

He can win 40,000 dollars.

We calculate:

E(X)=\frac{1}{296010}\cdot 40000\$- \frac{296009}{296010}\cdot 1\$\\\\E(X)=\frac{40000-296009}{296010}\, \$\\\\E(X)=-0.865\, \$

We conclude that  expected value of this game is -0.865$.

7 0
3 years ago
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