the answer is 0=0 because there is infinite solutions
Answer:
The Proof is below.
Step-by-step explanation:
Given:
To Prove:
Proof:
In ΔLPM and ΔNPM
……….{Given}
……….{Given}
……….{Reflexive Property}
ΔLPM ≅ ΔNPM ….{ By Side-Side-Side congruence test}
∴ ∠LMP ≅ ∠NMP ...{Corresponding parts of congruent triangles (c.p.c.t).}.....( 1 )
Now In ΔLMQ and ΔNMQ
……….{Given}
∠LMQ ≅ ∠NMQ ..........{From 1 above}
……….{Reflexive Property}
ΔLMQ ≅ ΔNMQ ....{ By Side-Angle-Side Congruence test}
∴ ...{Corresponding parts of congruent triangles (c.p.c.t).}.....Proved
Answer:16
Step-by-step explanation:
Start with whats inside (11+6) (17) then you will multiply 7 and 4 = 28+5 =33 then back to 17,,,, 33-17=16
Answer:
The consecutive even numbers are 28, 30, 32, 34
Step-by-step explanation:
let the four consecutive even numbers be: b d f h,
such that:
b=b, d=b+2, f=b+4, h=b+6.
Therefore, 2(b+b+2)=3(b+6)+14
b=28,
d=(b+2)=30
f=(b+4)=32
h=(b+6)=34
Answer:
y= 3/2x + 1
Step-by-step explanation:
slope intercept form is y=mx+b. the m is the slope and the b is the y intercept. the y intercept is 1, where it crosses the y axis. the slope is 3/2 because from the y intercept which is 1, you go up 3 and over 2 right.
