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Orlov [11]
3 years ago
9

Machinery was purchased on January 1 for $51,000. The machinery has an estimated life of 7 years and an estimated salvage value

of $9,000. Double-declining-balance depreciation for the second year would be (round calculations to the nearest dollar):
Business
1 answer:
tia_tia [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$10,408

Explanation:

The computation of the depreciation expense for the second year using the double-declining balance depreciation method is shown below:

First we have to determine the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= One ÷ useful life

= 1 ÷ 7

= 14.28%

Now the rate is double So, 28.57%

In year 1, the original cost is $51,000, so the depreciation is $14,571 after applying the 28.57% depreciation rate

And, in year 2, the ($51,000 - $14,571) × 28.57% = $10,408

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Yurman Co. sells major household appliance service contracts for cash. The service contracts are for a one-year, two-year, or th
vekshin1

Answer:

b. $660,000.

Explanation:

Deferred revenues or unearned revenues refer to money that a company received in advance for goods or services that it still has delivered or provided. In this case, the company hasn't provided services for years 2017, 2018 and 2019 = $200,000 + $320,000 + $140,000 = $660,000

6 0
3 years ago
What steps should e taken if the results do not support the hypothesis?
lys-0071 [83]
More information please
6 0
2 years ago
Your trip to was great, but it unfortunately ran a bit over budget. However, you just received an offer in the mail to transfer
serg [7]

Answer:

with the new rate we will pay in 58 months.

if there is 2% commision charge: 59.35 = 60 months

Explanation:

Currently we owe 10,000

This will be transfer to a new credit card with a rate of 6.2%

We are going to do monthly payment of 200 dollars each month

and we need to know the time it will take to pay the loan:

We use the formula for ordinary annuity and solve for time:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C  $200.00

time n

rate 0.005166667 (6.2% rate divide into 12 months)

PV $10,000.0000

200 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0051667)^{-n} }{0.0051667} = 10000\\

We arrenge the formula and solve as muhc as we can:

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}= 1-\frac{10000\times0.0051667}{200}

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}= 0.74166667

Now, we use logarithmics properties to solve for time:

-n= \frac{log0.741667}{log(1+0.0051667)

-57.99227477 = 58 months

part B

If there is a charge of 2% then Principal = 10,000 x 102% = 10,200

we use that in the formula and solve:

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}= 1-\frac{10200\times0.0051667}{200}

(1+0.0051667)^{-n}=0.73650000

-n= \frac{log0.7365}{log(1+0.0051667)

-59.34880001 = 59.35 months

6 0
2 years ago
Lola owns a one-half interest in the Lenax LLC. Her basis in this ownership interest is $22,000 on December 31, 2016, after acco
Marina CMI [18]

Answer:

The answer is Lola should acknowledge a $3,000 from this distribution.

Explanation:

From the question given, we say that, Lola should acknowledge a $3,000 from this distribution.

Recall that

The Cash Distributed  cash = $ 25,000

The Basis in this ownership of interest is  = $22,000

The Gain = $3,000

Lola basis after the distribution is zero.

Therefore Lola should accept this distribution of a $ 3000

7 0
3 years ago
At the present time, Water and Power Company (WPC) has 5-year noncallable bonds with a face value of $1,000 that are outstanding
kicyunya [14]

Answer:

6.53%      

Explanation:

For computing the after cost of debt we need to use the RATE formula i.e to be shown in attached spreadsheet. Kindly find it below:

Given that,  

Present value = $1,050.76

Future value or Face value = $1,000  

PMT = 1,000 × 10% = $100

NPER = 5 years

The formula is shown below:  

= Rate(NPER;PMT;-PV;FV;type)  

The present value come in negative  

So, after applying this above formula

1. The pretax cost of debt is 8.70

2. And, the after tax cost of debt would be

= Pretax cost of debt × ( 1 - tax rate)

= 8.70% × ( 1 - 0.25)

= 6.53%      

6 0
2 years ago
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