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3 years ago

WhAt is this question??????????

Physics

1 answer:

valina [46]3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Period = 7

Group = Actinides group

Family = Actinides Family

Explanation:

uranium found in seventh row or seventh period of the periodic table.

uranium is the member of Actinoides group it is also called Actinide group, And it has element whose atomic is number is 89 to 103. The atomic number of the uranium is 92. So, the uranium element is belongs to Actinide group

Uranium found in actinide family of periodic table, and actinides family has element whose atomic number is greater than or equal to 89 and less than or equal to 103.

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Uranium-238 (U238) has three more neutrons than uranium-235 (U235). Compared to the speed of sound in a bar of U235, is the spee

natta225 [31]

Answer:

The correct answers to then question are

A and B

Explanation:

As highlighted, the atoms of the two isotopes are chemically identical and they have similar characteristics due to the presence of equal number of protons and electrons (92 each). Therefore factors influenced by the chemistry of the atoms of the isotopes such as the distance between atoms and the stiffness of the inter-atomic spring is identical for both $U_{235}$ and $U_{238}$

An analogy of the spring constant and the inter-atomic distance is to consider the atoms of the metal to be interconnected by elastic material and as such the stiffness of the elastic material and the inter-atomic distance are determined by surface factors occurring on the surface

7 0

3 years ago

a block of mass m slides along a frictionless track with speed vm. It collides with a stationary block of mass M. Find an expres

shusha [124]

Answer:

Part a) When collision is perfectly inelastic

$v_m = \frac{m + M}{m} \sqrt{5Rg}$

Part b) When collision is perfectly elastic

$v_m = \frac{m + M}{2m}\sqrt{5Rg}$

Explanation:

Part a)

As we know that collision is perfectly inelastic

so here we will have

$mv_m = (m + M)v$

so we have

$v = \frac{mv_m}{m + M}$

now we know that in order to complete the circle we will have

$v = \sqrt{5Rg}$

$\frac{mv_m}{m + M} = \sqrt{5Rg}$

now we have

$v_m = \frac{m + M}{m} \sqrt{5Rg}$

Part b)

Now we know that collision is perfectly elastic

so we will have

$v = \frac{2mv_m}{m + M}$

now we have

$\sqrt{5Rg} = \frac{2mv_m}{m + M}$

$v_m = \frac{m + M}{2m}\sqrt{5Rg}$

6 0

4 years ago

Two charges, each 9 µC, are on the x axis, one at the origin and the other at x = 8 m. Find the electric field on the x axis at

bearhunter [10]

a) Electric field at x = -2 m: 21,060 N/C to the left

b) Electric field at x = 2 m: 18,000 N/C to the right

c) Electric field at x = 6 m: 18,000 N/C to the left

d) Electric field at x = 10 m: 21,060 N/C to the right

e) Electric field is zero at x = 4 m

Explanation:

The electric field produced by a single-point charge is given by

$E=k\frac{q}{r^2}$

where:

$k=8.99\cdot 10^9 Nm^{-2}C^{-2}$ is the Coulomb's constant

q is the magnitude of the charge

r is the distance from the charge

Here we have two charges of

$q=9\mu C = 9\cdot 10^{-6} C$

each. Therefore, the net electric field at any point in the space will be given by the vector sum of the two electric fields. The two charges are both positive, so the electric field points outward of the charge.

We call the charge at x = 0 as $q_0$ , and the charge at x = 8 m as $q_8$ .

For a point located at x = -2 m, both the fields $E_0$ and $E_8$ produced by the two charges point to the left, so the net field is the sum of the two fields in the negative direction:

$E=-\frac{kq_0}{(0-x)^2}-\frac{kq_8}{(8-x)^2}=-kq(\frac{1}{(-2)^2}+\frac{1}{(8-(-2))^2})=-21060 N/C$

In this case, we are analyzing a point located at

x = 2 m

The field produced by the charge at x = 0 here points to the right, while the field produced by the charge at x = 8 m here points to the left. Therefore, the net field is given by the difference between the two fields, so:

$E=\frac{kq_0}{(0-x)^2}-\frac{kq_8}{(8-x)^2}=kq(\frac{1}{(2)^2}-\frac{1}{(8-2)^2})=18000 N/C$

And since the sign is positive, the direction is to the right.

In this case, we are considering a point located at

x = 6 m

The field produced by the charge at x = 0 here points to the right again, while the field produced by the charge at x = 8 m here points to the left. Therefore, the net field is given by the difference between the two fields, as before; so:

$E=\frac{kq_0}{(0-x)^2}-\frac{kq_8}{(8-x)^2}=kq(\frac{1}{(6)^2}-\frac{1}{(8-6)^2})=-18000 N/C$

And the negative sign indicates that the electric field in this case is towards the left.

In this case, we are considering a point located at

x = 10 m

This point is located to the right of both charges: therefore, the field produced by the charge at x = 0 here points to the right, and the field produced by the charge at x = 8 m here points to the right as well. Therefore, the net field is given by the sum of the two fields:

$E=\frac{kq_0}{(0-x)^2}+\frac{kq_8}{(8-x)^2}=kq(\frac{1}{(10)^2}+\frac{1}{(8-(10))^2})=21060 N/C$

And the positive sign means the field is to the right.

We want to find the point with coordinate x such that the electric field at that location is zero. This point must be in between x = 0 and x = 8, because that is the only region where the two fields have opposite directions. Therefore, te net field must be

$E=\frac{kq_0}{(0-x)^2}-\frac{kq_8}{(8-x)^2}=kq(\frac{1}{(-x)^2}-\frac{1}{(8-x)^2})=0$

This means that we have to solve the equation

$\frac{1}{x^2}-\frac{1}{(8-x)^2}=0$

Re-arranging it,

$\frac{1}{x^2}-\frac{1}{(8-x)^2}=0\\\frac{(8-x)^2-x^2}{x^2(8-x)^2}=0$

$(8-x)^2-x^2=0\\64+x^2-16x-x^2=0\\64-16x=0\\64=16x\\x=4 m$

So, the electric field is zero at x = 4 m, exactly halfway between the two charges (which is reasonable, because the two charges have same magnitude)

Learn more about electric fields:

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#LearnwithBrainly

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Consider a turntable to be a circular disk of moment of inertia It rotating at a constant angular velocity ωi around an axis thr

Rom4ik [11]

Answer:

Note: Angular momentum is always conserved in a collision.

The initial angular momentum of the system is

L = ( It ) ( ωi )

where It = moment of inertia of the rotating circular disc,

ωi = angular velocity of the rotating circular disc

The final angular momentum is

L = ( It + Ir ) ( ωf )

where ωf is the final angular velocity of the system.

Since the two angular momenta are equal, we see that

( It ) ( ωi ) = ( It + Ir ) ( ωf )

so making ωf the subject of the formula

ωf = [ ( It ) / ( It + Ir ) ] ωi

Explanation:

7 0

3 years ago

2. How does the medium vibrate in a transverse wave?

stiv31 [10]

ANSWER :

(A) AT RIGHT ANGLES TO THE DIRECTION THE WAVE TRAVELS.

EXPLANATION :

TRANSVERSE WAVES IS THAT IN WHICH THE PARTICLES VIBRATE WITH AN UP-AND-DOWN MOTION. THE PARTICLES IN A TRANSVERSE WAVE MOVE ACROSS OR PERPENDICULAR TO THE DIRECTION THAT THE WAVE IS TRAVELING OR AT RIGHT ANGLES TO THE DIRECTION THE WAVE TRAVELS.

3 0

3 years ago