Answer:
$5,000 favorable
Explanation:
The computation of the total variable overhead variance is given below:
= Budgeted machine hours allowed for actual output × Budgeted variable overhead rate per machine hour - Actual total variable overhead
= 32,000 hours × $2.50 - $75,000
= $80,000 - $75,000
= $5,000 favorable
Since the favorable is more than the actual so it should be favorable
Answer:
Liabilities increase and assets decrease.
Hope this helps!
Answer:
Trend- % change in sales = 34.64%
Explanation:
<em>Trend analysis entails determining the performance of a business over time by comparing its performance data from one period to another. The aim of trend analysis is to identify the behavior of a set of ratios over a period of time by comparing them across different years.</em>
To determine the trend for a particular data, we use the formula below
% Change in variable =
(Current year figure - Previous year figure)/Previous year figure × 100
DATA
Current year figure for sales (2017) - 450,000
Previous year figure for sale (2016) - 688,500
% change in sales = (450,000 -688,500)/688,500 × 100 = 34.64%
% change in sales = 34.64%
This implies that the company made sales in 2017 which is 34.64% less than that made in 2016
Answer:
This type of argument ties to make a connection between people living in different parts of the world using both geographic and demographic variables. The geographic variables are the foreign cities (London, Sao Paulo, and Tokyo) and the demographic variables would be the education and income levels (wealthy MBAs).
Answer:
(E) $0
Explanation:
The answer is $0
because you can only deduct losses not reimbursed or reimbursable by insurance or other means. The losses from casualty item are not deductible.
So, the correct answer is (E) $0
