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Juliette [100K]
3 years ago
8

Sean has some candy bars that he wants to give away. He is going to give each person 1/18 of a bar, and he has 2 3/4 to give awa

y How many people will get candy? PLS HELP MEEE
Mathematics
1 answer:
julsineya [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

49 people

Step-by-step explanation:

Take the amount of candy and divide by the amount in a serving

2 3/4 ÷ 1/18

Change to an improper fraction

(4*2+3)/4 ÷ 1 /18

11/4 ÷ 1/18

Copy dot flip

11/4 * 18/1

198/4

49.5

Round down since people do not want half a serving

49 people

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IrinaK [193]

Answer:

1.  150%                     2.  14%

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Cherry is paid $72.00 for working six hours in a library. If the amount paid is proportional to the number of hours worked, what
patriot [66]

Answer:

She's being paid six hours per hour

Step-by-step explanation:

She's being paid six hours per hour

72/6 = 6

4 0
3 years ago
10. What is the value of the function f(x) = 7x when x = 0.75 ?
melomori [17]

Answer:

7(0.75) = 5.25

f = 7

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
In testing a certain kind of missile, target accuracy is measured by the average distance X at which the missile explodes. The d
3241004551 [841]

Answer:

The answer is c) 761.0

Step-by-step explanation:

Mathematical hope (also known as hope, expected value, population means or simply means) expresses the average value of a random phenomenon and is denoted as E (x). Hope is the sum of the product of the probability of each event by the value of that event. It is then defined as shown in the image, Where x is the value of the event, P the probability of its occurrence, "i" the period in which said event occurs and N the total number of periods or observations.

 The variance of a random variable provides an idea of the dispersion of the random variable with respect to its hope. It is then defined as shown in the image.

Then you first calculate E [x] and E [x^{2}], and then be able to calculate the variance.

E[x]=0*\frac{1}{40} +10*\frac{1}{20} +50*\frac{1}{10} +100*\frac{33}{40}

E[x]=0+\frac{1}{2} +5+\frac{165}{2}

E[X]=88

So <em>E[X]²=88²=7744</em>

On the other hand

E[x^{2} ]=0^{2} *\frac{1}{40} +10^{2} *\frac{1}{20} +50^{2} *\frac{1}{10} +100^{2} *\frac{33}{40}

E[x²]=0+5+250+8250

<em>E[x²]=8505 </em>

Then the variance will be:

Var[x]=8505-7744

<u><em>Var[x]=761 </em></u>

5 0
3 years ago
What is the area of the shaded region to the nearest tenth?
Aleks04 [339]

Answer:

15.1

Step-by-step explanation:

We know that the area of the circle is \pi r^{2}, but we are looking for the portion of the circle, this means we multiply it by the portion of the circle that is shaded.

Area of shaded region = \pi r^{2} (\frac{x}{360} )

where r = 4 and x = 108, the 360 comes from the fact that the total degrees around the circle is 360, so dividing the total amount of degrees by the angle will give us the portion we are looking for.

Area of shaded region = \frac{108}{360} \pi 4^{2} = 15.1

Another way to think about it is that the area of the total circle is \pi r^{2}, multiplying it by a fraction, a number less than 1, would give us a smaller value.

Hope this helps.

5 0
3 years ago
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